FPC3: Pathology Week 3

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115 Terms

1
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Soft tissue tumors are derived from _________ prolilferations

Mesenchymal

2
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The major of soft tissue tumors are ______

reactive

low grade chronic irritation

3
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Fibrosarcoma

Malignant tumor of fibroblasts

10-19% occur in H&N--more common extremities

<p>Malignant tumor of fibroblasts</p><p>10-19% occur in H&amp;N--more common extremities</p>
4
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What are the clinical presentations of fibrosarcoma?

Slow growing masses

can present at ANY age

can present ANYWHERE

5
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Fibrosarcoma histology

knowt flashcard image
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Liposarcoma

Sarcoma of adipocytes

adults ages 40-60

<p>Sarcoma of adipocytes</p><p>adults ages 40-60</p>
7
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What are the clinical features of liposarcoma?

Slow growing, soft lesion

pain is a late feature

8
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Where are common locations for liposarcoma?

Thigh

Retroperitoneum

inguinal area

H&N is rare---> 3% is neck and cheek

9
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Liposarcoma histology

knowt flashcard image
10
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Struge-Weber Angiomatosis Syndrome

Port wine stain of skin- follows distribution of TRIGEMINAL N.

10% of port wine stains are bilateral

<p>Port wine stain of skin- follows distribution of TRIGEMINAL N.</p><p>10% of port wine stains are bilateral</p>
11
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Patients with Sturge-Weber Angiomatosis are more likely to also have these disorders:

Seizure disorders

cognitive disabilities

parallel calcifications in the brain's cortex (Tram-Line)

Intraoral hypervascularization

12
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What is the treatment for Sturge-Weber Angiomatosis?

Depends on severity

lasors

Surgical excision (may need more extensive surgery)

intra-oral lesions surgery

13
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Angiosarcoma

Sarcoma of vascular endothelium

Seen in elderly patients

<p>Sarcoma of vascular endothelium</p><p>Seen in elderly patients</p>
14
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What is a common site for angiosarcoma?

Scalp & forehead

can present orally --rare

15
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What are the clinical features of angiosarcoma?

Early lesions appear as a bruise

Enlarges to create an ulcerated, nodular elevated surface

16
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Angiosarcoma histology

knowt flashcard image
17
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Are there malignant soft tissue pathologies of the lymphatic tissue?

No

18
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Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (syndrome)

Most common + presents with oral lesions

Heredity condition

Autosomal dominant

Mapped on Chromosome 17

--NF1 gene

<p>Most common + presents with oral lesions</p><p>Heredity condition</p><p>Autosomal dominant</p><p>Mapped on Chromosome 17</p><p>--NF1 gene</p>
19
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What are the clinical features of neurofibromatosis Type 1?

Multiple fibromas on the body

Cafe au lait pigmentation

Axillary freckling

Lisch nodules

Neurofibromas occur at a young age

<p>Multiple fibromas on the body</p><p>Cafe au lait pigmentation</p><p>Axillary freckling</p><p>Lisch nodules</p><p>Neurofibromas occur at a young age</p>
20
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What is the treatment of neurofibromatosis Type 1?

No specific treatment

Removal of neurofibromas

**Neurofibromas may undergo malignant transformation

21
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Patients with neurofibromatosis Type 1 can undergo malignant transformation into what cancer?

Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

22
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Neurofibromatosis Type 1 patients are more susceptible to what other tumors?

Leukemia

Wilms Tumor

CNS tumors

23
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Neurofibromatosis Type 2 characteristics

Autosomal dominant -NF2 gene

Bilateral Schwannomas (CN VIII)

Café au lait pigmentation (less

common than in NF1)

Cutaneous neurofibromas are

uncommon

24
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MEN type 2B

Genetic mutation -- autosomal dominant

Mucosal neuromas on lip, tongue, BM, gingiva, & palate (can be 1st sign of disease)

Pheochromocytomas

Marfanoid appearance

<p>Genetic mutation -- autosomal dominant</p><p>Mucosal neuromas on lip, tongue, BM, gingiva, &amp; palate (can be 1st sign of disease)</p><p>Pheochromocytomas</p><p>Marfanoid appearance</p>
25
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MEN type 2b patients are almost 100% likely to get what type of malignant soft tissue pathology?

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

26
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what is the treatment for MEN type 2B?

Thyroid removal ASAP

Lab values show serum or urinary calcitonin

Pheochromycytomas may result in increased levels of urinary vanillymandellic acid (VMA)

27
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Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor

Common in people with neurofibromas (50%)

10% of all soft tissue sarcomas

<p>Common in people with neurofibromas (50%)</p><p>10% of all soft tissue sarcomas</p>
28
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What are the clinical features of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor?

Asymptomatic

Expansile mass

Young patients

radiographs can show widening of mandibular canal or mental foramen

29
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Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor histology

knowt flashcard image
30
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What is the most common site for an angiosarcoma?

(video question)

Scalp

31
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rhabdomyosarcoma

Malignant tumor of skeletal muscle

<p>Malignant tumor of skeletal muscle</p>
32
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What are the clinical features of rhabdomyosarcoma?

Common in young children (1st decade)

2-5% in adults

Presents as an infiltration mass

33
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What are the common sites for rhabdomyosarcoma?

Eye and nasal cavity

34
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Rhabdomyosarcoma histology

knowt flashcard image
35
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Leiomyosarcoma

Derived from vascular smooth muscle

7% of all soft tissue sarcomas

RARE in oral cavity

<p>Derived from vascular smooth muscle</p><p>7% of all soft tissue sarcomas</p><p>RARE in oral cavity</p>
36
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What are the clinical features of leiomyosarcoma?

Common in middle aged and older adults

Appear as enlarging mass

Can be painful or ulcerated

37
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Leiomyosarcoma histology

knowt flashcard image
38
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What is the inheritance pattern for neurofibromatosis type I?

Autosomal Dominant

39
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Metastases to the oral soft tissue accounts for ____% of oral malignancies

1

40
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What are the clinical features of metastases to the oral soft tissues?

Gingiva is most common site** (mimic 4 P's)

Resembles hyperplastic/reactive growths

Can be ulcerated

Histology matches PRIMARY tumor

<p>Gingiva is most common site** (mimic 4 P's)</p><p>Resembles hyperplastic/reactive growths</p><p>Can be ulcerated</p><p>Histology matches PRIMARY tumor</p>
41
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What is the most common site for metastasic tumors to the oral cavity?

(video question)

Gingiva

42
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Cell division and proliferation is necessary and normal... Why is that?

Its needed for growth & injury repair

Its controlled by GENES

43
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Proto-oncogenes

Encourage growth

44
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Suppressor genes

Restrict growth

45
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What is malignancy?

Its uncontrolled growth, damaging the growth of cells

46
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So, What is cancer?

Uncontrolled growth with invasion +/- metastasis

Most cancers form tumors

ANY age affected

Genetic abnormalities

--cancer promoting oncogenes= ON

--tumor supressor genes = OFF

47
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What cancer does NOT form a tumor?

Leukemia

48
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What are 2 histological components of cancer?

Dysplasia

Anaplasia

49
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Dysplasia

Disordered growth

50
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Anaplasia

Cells assume a bizarre shape

OR lack of differentiation

51
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Oral SCCa presentation

Variable pain

Red/white lesion

Non-healing ulcer

Exophytic growth or endophytic growth

HIGH risk locations --->

-Floor of mouth

-Posterior lateral border of tongue

<p>Variable pain</p><p>Red/white lesion</p><p>Non-healing ulcer</p><p>Exophytic growth or endophytic growth</p><p>HIGH risk locations ---&gt;</p><p>-Floor of mouth</p><p>-Posterior lateral border of tongue</p>
52
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What are adjuncts to oral cancer diagnosis?

Brush biopsy

Velscope

Vizilite

Identafi

53
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What are the 3 types of treatment for oral cancers?

Surgery

radiation therapy

Chemotherapy

54
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Why are dental consultations with your cancer patients important?

The goal is to assist the patient in returning to as near normal life as possible!

Plan ahead: restore lost tissue/teeth

55
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What should your examination consist of in your pretreatment dental exam for your cancer patient?

Radiographs

Examine Salivary glands

Maximum incisal opening

56
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Eliminate foci of infection for your cancer patient, what does this mean?

Restore caries

Address perio

Plan extractions 2-3 weeks PRIOR to starting cancer treatment

57
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What is chemotherapy?

Cytotoxic agents + antimetabolites

58
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What is the goal of chemotherapy?

High kill rates

Target rapidly dividing cells

--tumor shrinkage

--eradicate micrometastases

59
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What are the different types of chemotherapy?

Induction

Concurrent

Adjuvant

60
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What are the side effects of chemotherapy?

Myelosuppression

Mucositis

Alopecia

61
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What is adjuvant chemotherapy?

Additional treatment AFTER srugery

Helps reduce risk of relapse due to occult disease

Aim to improve overall survival

62
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What is neoadjuvant chemotherapy?

BEFORE the main treatment

Reduction of tumor size to help minimize an invasive surgery

63
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What is the goal of ionizing radiation?

Control malignant cells

-usually gamma

64
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What are the uses of ionizing radiation?

Curative (Primary)

Adjuvant

Palliative

Total body irradiation

65
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What are the side effects of radiation therapy?

Mucositis

Dermatitis

Altered pigmentation

Hair loss

damage taste buds

damage salivary glands

delayed bone/tissue necrosis

66
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In radiation therapy, dose fractionation minimizes what?

Minimizes damage to normal tissue

67
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What are complications to radiation therapy treatment?

Alteration of normal tissues

Complications can delay or limit treatment

Effective therapy does NOT eliminate risks for second cancer

68
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What are the acute complications for chemotherapy?

Mucositis

Hemorrhage

69
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What are the acute complications for radiation?

Mucositis

Dermatitis (acute)

Loss of taste (hypogeusia)

Pain

Infection

trismus

70
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What are the chronic complications of cancer treatment?

Xerostomia

Loss of taste

Chronic dermatitis

Dental caries

Trismus

Osteoradionecrosis

71
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Mucositis

inflammation of the mucosa

--thinning and breakdown

72
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What are the symptoms of mucositis?

Pain

Ulceration

Odynophagia

Secondary infections

reduced oral intake

<p>Pain</p><p>Ulceration</p><p>Odynophagia</p><p>Secondary infections</p><p>reduced oral intake</p>
73
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________ can last up the 6 months AFTER cancer therapy

mucositis

74
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Characteristics of grade 1 mucositis?

Soreness

Erythema

<p>Soreness</p><p>Erythema</p>
75
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Characteristics of grade 2 mucositis

Erythema

ulcers

patient CAN swallow solid food

<p>Erythema</p><p>ulcers</p><p>patient CAN swallow solid food</p>
76
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Characteristics of grade 3 mucositis

Ulcers with extensive erythema

Patient CANNOT swallow food, only liquid diet only

*considered severe mucositis

<p>Ulcers with extensive erythema</p><p>Patient CANNOT swallow food, only liquid diet only</p><p>*considered severe mucositis</p>
77
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Characteristics of grade 4 mucositis

Mucositis to the extend that alimentation is not possible

patient cannot eat/drink

LIFE-THREATENING

*considered severe mucositis

<p>Mucositis to the extend that alimentation is not possible</p><p>patient cannot eat/drink</p><p>LIFE-THREATENING</p><p>*considered severe mucositis</p>
78
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What is the treatment for mucositis?

No prevention exists

Increased risks for infections

topical analgesics and coating agents

79
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Trismus

Inability to open the mouth completely

Max. incisal opening <35 mm

Affects quality of life

80
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What is the treatment for trismus?

Exercise therapy

jaw opening devices (splints)

Emphasis on prevention

81
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Xerostomia

Subjective feeling of decreased salivary flow

82
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Hyposalivation

Objective reduction of salivary flow

Most common long term side effect in most patients undergoing head and neck radiation

83
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Cholinergic agonists (parasympathetic) medications for xerostomia

Pilocarpine

Cevineline

84
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Salivary flow stimulants

Sugarless gum

biotene

Xilifresh

Sugarless hard candy

Salix lozenges

85
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What are other dental adjuncts to help xerostomia?

Fluoride

Acid buffer

Antif-ungals

Frequent dental visits

Sialogogues

86
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What are things that interfere with a patient's nutrition once they start receiving treatment?

Mucositis

Loss of taste

Xerostomia

Loss of interest in eating

Comprised nutrition

87
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Osteoradionecrosis

Exposed bone in a previously irradiated area

fail to heal over 3-6 months

NO history of anti-resorptive of metastatic tumors to jaw

88
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What is the etiology of osteoradionecrosis?

Avascular effect of radiation to the bone causing hypoxia, hypovascularity, hypocellularity

89
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T/F: Mucositis is a common side effect of both chemotherapy and radiation therapy

(video question)

True

90
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What is the management of osteoradionecrosis?

Conservative management (routine prophylactic cleaning with 0.12% CHX)

Antibiotics + pain medication

91
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T/F Osteoradionecrosis can develop at any point following radiation therapy?

True

92
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Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (MRONJ)

Pt has a HISTORY of anti-resorptive or anti-angiogenic medications

NO history of radiation or metastatic tumors of jaw

Exposed bone or probed bone >8 weeks

93
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What are initiating events of Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (MRONJ)?

Spontaneous- 25%

Tooth extraction- 38%

Active perio disease-29%

Perio surgery- 11.2%

Dental implants- 3.4%

Apicoectomy - 0.8%

94
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Who is more at risk for developing Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (MRONJ)?

Females > males

Smokers

Obesity

95
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Bisphosphonates

Inhibit bone resorption

Bind to bone surfaces and inhibit osteoblasts-- stays in body for 13yrs

increases bone density

Decreases fractures

excreted by kidneys

96
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IV Bisphosphonates are contain _________ and are ______x more potent than oral Bisphosphonates

nitrogen, 100

97
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Etidronate (Didronel)

IV bisphosphonate

98
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Pamidronate (Aredia)

IV bisphosphonate

99
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Zoledronate (Zometa)

IV bisphosphonate

100
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Zoledronic Acid (reclast)

IV bisphosphonate