Blood bank Final Review Megan F7

Testing the last wash in the eluate procedure ensures that:

A. The check cells will work

B. The antibody identified in the eluate is the antibody attached to the red cells

C. The antibody identified in the eluate should be in the patient plasma

D. The pH of the eluate is appropriate for panel cell testing

B. The antibody identified in the eluate is the antibody attached to the red cells

Other than Anti-IgG, what is in Polyspecific AHG reagent?

A. IgM

B. C9

C. C3d

D. C4

C. C3d

Which statement is true for allo-adsorption procedure?

A. It is utilized when patients have been recently transfused

B. It removes antibody from patient cells

C. QC for this procedure involves testing of the last wash

D. Patient cell are used to remove autoantibody from their own plasma

A. It is utilized when patients have been recently transfused

Which DAT results indicate that an elution should be performed?

A. AHG +, IgG +, C3d -

B. AHG -, IgG -, C3d -

C. AHG +, IgG -, C3d +

D. AHG +, IgG -, C3d -

A. AHG +, IgG +, C3d -

Which test result differentiates between high incident antibody and autoantibody workup?

A. Elution

B. Auto Control

C. Adsorption

D. DAT

B. Auto Control

Shortness of breath indicates hemolytic anemia. What test differentiates between cold acting antibodies and warm acting antibodies being the cause?

A. Auto Control

B. Cold Screen

C. Elution

D. Donath Landsteiner

B. Cold Screen

Which type of anemia is not often associated with compliment activation?

A. PCH

B. CAD

C. Drug Adsorption

D. WAIHA

C. Drug Adsorption

What test helps to differentiate pathologic vs. benign CAD?

A. Antibody ID

B. DAT

C. Antibody Titer

D. Donath Landsteiner

C. Antibody Titer

Which of the following is NOT a control for the Donath Landsteiner test?

A. Patient cells + normal plasma

B. Samples kept at 37C until testing commences

C. Normal plasma + patient plasma

D. Normal plasma

A. Patient cells + normal plasma

This mechanism of drug related hemolysis is less severe with penicillin and most severe with Cefotetan. Which mechanism is it?

A. Drug Adsorption

B. Immune Complex

C. Membrane Modification

D. Drug-Independent Auto Antibody

A. Drug Adsorption

Which transfusion recommendation is appropriately matched to its autoantibody diagnosis?

A. Darzalex - do not transfuse

B. WAIHA - transfuse with blood warmer

C. CAD - wash the cells

D. Cefotetan - transfuse as normal

D. Cefotetan - transfuse as normal

A Crossmatch sample collected at 1405 on Monday would expire on which day at midnight?

A. Tuesday

B. Wednesday

C. Thursday

D. Friday

C. Thursday

When should a transfusionist be checking vitals?

A. Before the unit is started

B. 15 minutes after unit is started

C. 15 minutes after unit is completed

D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

What blood type donor units should Anti-A,B be used on?

A. A neg

B. B pos

C. AB Pos

D. O neg

D. O neg

What does NOT have to be verified when blood is read back for issue?

A. Patient ID

B. Unit ID

C. Visual Inspection

D. Compatibility

E. All have to be verified

E. All have to be verified

What blood should a patient with the following serological results receive?

Anti-A: 4+

Anti-B: 0

Anti-D: 0

A1 Cell: 1+

B Cell: 4+

A. A or O

B. O only

C. A or AB

D. A only

B. O only

The purpose of immediate spin Crossmatch is to:

A. Ensure survival of transfused RBCs

B. Determine ABO compatibility between donor & recipient

C. Detect cold reacting antibodies

D. Meet computer Crossmatch requirements

B. Determine ABO compatibility between donor & recipient

Electronic crossmatch may be performed in place of serological crossmatch under the following conditions:

A. Previous A pos with Anti-c; current A pos with Anti-c

B. Previous O pos with Anti-E; current O pos neg screen

C. Previous O pos neg screen; current O pos neg screen

D. Previous none; current O neg neg screen

C. Previous O pos neg screen; current O pos neg screen

Which crossmatch is performed on a patient with a negative antibody screen but no previous history?

A. Electronic

B. Extended

C. Immediate Spin

D. Elution

C. Immediate Spin

A patient with a cold autoagglutinin will give additional reactions in which of the following tests:

A. ABO forward type

B. IS crossmatch

C. AHG screen

D. DAT IgG

B. IS crossmatch

Given the following blood typing results, which type of RBCs can you transfuse?

Anti-A: 4+

Anti-B: 1+

Anti-D: 0

A1 Cell: 0

B Cell: 4+

A. A neg only

B. A and O

C. O neg only

D. A neg and AB neg

C. O neg only

Given the results below, which subgroup do you think the patient is?

Anti-A: 0

Anti-B: 0

Anti-A,B: 1+

A1 Cell: 1+

B Cell: 4+

A. A2

B. B3

C. Bx

D. Am

D. Am

What is this patient's blood type?

Anti-A: 0

Anti-B: 0

Control: 0

A1 Cell: 4+

B Cell: 4+

A. AB

B. A

C. B

D. O

D. O

If a mother is blood type O, and Child 1 is A and Child 2 is B, what is the father's genotype?

A. AO

B. AB

C. BB

D. OO

B. AB

A person with the following genes has what in their saliva?

HH, LeLe, SeSe, OO

A. Lea only

B. Leb and H

C. Lea and B

D. A and B

B. Leb and H

The Lewis Gene codes for a transferase that transfers a sugar onto precursor substance, what is that sugar?

A. Fucose

B. N-acetylgalactosamine

C. N-acetylglucosamine

D. D-Galactose

A. Fucose

D antibodies are known to cause which of the following?

A. Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions

B. Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

C. Both

D. Neither

C. Both

How do you interpret an Rh type that is not reactive with Anti-D but is positive in elution studies?

A. Rh negative

B. LW negative

C. Del

D. Partial D

C. Del

Which of the following genotypes are heterozygous for E?

A. R2r"

B. R0r

C. rr

D. R2r

D. R2r

Which Rh haplotype is most frequent in the Asian population?

A. R0

B. R1

C. R2

D. r

B. R1

Which blood system does NOT have strongly expressed antigens at birth?

A. MNS

B. Duffy

C. Kell

D. Lutheran

D. Lutheran

Nulls of MNS protect against which disease?

A. Plasmodium falciparum

B. Plasmodium vivax

C. Taenia

D. Haemophilus influenzae

A. Plasmodium falciparum

A request for 6 D-Negative units was received for patient Carmen SanDiego. 1 of the 6 was 2+ incompatible on AHG crossmatch, why?

A. Low incidence antibody

B. High incidence antibody

C. Patient is Weak D

D. Patient has positive autocontrol

A. Low incidence antibody

Which of the following is a high/low frequency pair?

A. Fya/Fyb

B. Jka/Jkb

C. E/C

D. Lua/Lub

D. Lua/Lub

Which of the following is destroyed by Enzymes?

A. Kpa

B. S

C. B

D. Jka

B. S

Match the drug mechanism with its most severe drug: Drug Adsorption

Cefotetan

Match the drug mechanism with its most severe drug: Immune Complex

Quinidine

Match the drug mechanism with its most severe drug: Membrane Modification

Cephalosporin

Match the drug mechanism with its most severe drug: Drug Independent

Aldomet

If you have a DAT result that is IgG negative and compliment positive, and the serum in the sample is tea colored, what should you suspect is causing this?

A. WAIHA

B. Immune Complex with a drug

C. Darzalex

D. Non-specific cold agglutinin

B. Immune Complex with a drug

Other than transfusion, what treatment might help a patient with an autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A. Plasma Exchange

B. Antibody Titer

C. Emergency Release of O negative Blood

D. Antibody Adsorption

A. Plasma Exchange

A positive Donath Landsteiner result indicates which diagnosis?

A. WAIHA

B. PCH

C. PNH

D. CAD

B. PCH

Which of the following samples are acceptable for add-on crossmatch? (Select all that apply)

A. 4 days old, A positive, negative screen

B. 1 day old, O positive, positive screen

C. 2 days old, B positive, no current screen results available

D. 3 days old, AB negative, negative antibody screen with history of Anti-Fya

B. 1 day old, O positive, positive screen

D. 3 days old, AB negative, negative antibody screen with history of Anti-Fya

Choose all that apply: Under which circumstances would you warm a crossmatch?

A. A negative, negative antibody screen, positive IS crossmatch

B. O positive, Anti-M identified

C. O negative, Anti-D identified

D. ABO discrepancy with extra reaction in the reverse type

A. A negative, negative antibody screen, positive IS crossmatch

B. O positive, Anti-M identified

The last 3 patients in a row have given negative reactions with Anti-A. This type of error is most likely:

A. Coincidence

B. Patient sample error

C. Systematic error

D. Delta error

C. Systematic error

Which DAT results are most consistent with a diagnosis of CAD?

A. Poly 3+, IgG 3+, C3d 0

B. Poly 3+, IgG 0, C3d 0

C. Poly 0, IgG 0, C3d 0

D. Poly 3+, IgG 0, C3d 3+

D. Poly 3+, IgG 0, C3d 3+

Penicillin given in massive doses has been associated with RBC hemolysis. Which of the classic mechanisms is typically involved in this hemolytic process?

A. Immune Complex

B. Drug Adsorption

C. Membrane Modification

D. Autoantibody Formation

B. Drug Adsorption

Which of the following tests does not have to be performed for a patient to receive an electronic crossmatch?

A. Unit ABO retype

B. Blood type of previous sample

C. Antibody screen on current sample

D. Antibody screen on donor unit

D. Antibody screen on donor unit

After a unit is issued, how long does the nurse have to infuse the whole product into the patient?

A. 30 minutes

B. 2 hours

C. 4 hours

D. 24 hours

C. 4 hours

Which cell is the best cell to remove auto antibodies in patient plasma using adsorption procedures?

A. Screen Cell 1

B. Screen Cell 2

C. Screen Cell 3

D. Patient Cell

D. Patient Cell

For the elution procedure, which step ensures that the washing was appropriate?

A. Addition of Coombs control cell after Anti-AHG

B. Testing of last wash with screen cells

C. Testing of equate with panel cells

D. Color change from yellow to blue with buffer

B. Testing of last wash with screen cells