lab ops rotation

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56 Terms

1
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how long should complete waste manifests be stored?

3 years

2
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what rating is considered the most hazardous according to NFPA and HMIS hazards?

4

3
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what do the red, blue, and yellow colors mean in regards to NFPA and HMIS hazards?

red= flammability

yellow= reactivity

blue= health hazard

4
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is a higher or lower flashpoint more dangerous?

lower

5
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what are the classes of fires and their corresponding extinguisher: A, B, C, D, and K?

A= ordinary combustible, extinguished with water

B= chemical fire, extinguished with dry chemicals or CO2

C= electrical fire, extinguished by shutting off power then using chemical or CO2

D= combustible metals, extinguished by dry chemicals

K= cooking fires, extinguished by dry or wet chemicals

6
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where should the absorbant pad be placed first in a chemical spill?

around the edges of the spill to prevent it from spreading

7
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what are the requirements of a chemical hood?

  • minimum 75 linear feet/min air flow

  • replace HEPA filters annually

  • at least 2.5 ft of space for each user

  • positioned away from traffic

8
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what chemicals are the following incompatible with: bleach, oxygen, and cyanide

bleach and ammonia; oxygen and oil; cyanide and acid

9
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describe the three types of bio safety levels

1= protects only the worker

2= protects the worker and environment

3= worker does not have direct access

10
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differentiate between the four levels of BSL organisms

1= rarely pathogenic

2= transmitted by contact

3= more hazardous/transmissable than 2 and requires high level disinfectants

4= exotic/highly dangerous

11
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what protection is used for alpha, beta, and gamma radiation?

  • alpha= paper

  • beta= plastic

  • gamma= lead

12
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what are the requirements for safety showers?

must be within 100 feet of all workers and deliver 30 gallons of water

13
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what organizations have deemed status?

TJC, CAP, and COLA

14
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when are t tests v. f tests used?

t test= used to differentiate between the means of 2 methods

f test= assesses variances or standard deviations between 2 or more groups

15
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what type or error is assessed by coefficient of variation?

random error

16
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how many standard deviations are used to assess random error?

6

17
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when is specificity used?

to assess how well a method can exclude a disease

18
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what type of westgard rule respons best to random error?

range rule

19
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what type of QC controls can be used to assess a method that uses urine specimens?

urine or water because urine is mostly water

20
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what is the minimum pass rate of proficiency testing for CLIA?

80%

21
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differentiate between latent and active errors

latent= unavoidable in the process

active= genuine mistakes of not following the protocol

22
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what is the highest quality of chemical?

analytical

23
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what happens if the diluent is added after the solute?

false elevation in total volume

24
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what is the effect of warm solutions v. cold solutions on glassware?

warm solutions cause it to expand, cold solutions cause it to constrict

25
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what is water’s “resistance” in reference to when discussing purification?

resistance to electrical flow

26
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how must alkaline solutions be stored?

in plastic containers

27
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what type of pipette is considered the most accurate?

volumetric

28
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how is a fixed angle centrifuge different from a swinging bucket centrifuge?

it’s faster than the swinging bucket centrifuge

29
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what is the formula for RCF?

RCF= 1.12*radius(in mm)*(RPM/100)²

30
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what do etched rings on a pipette indicate?

to blow out the last drop to distribute the full volume from the pipette

31
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what type of pipettes can be completely drained?

TD (to deliver)

32
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describe the following types of pipettes: serologic, Mohr, volumetric, and Ostwald

  • serologic: graduated, must be blown out TD

  • Mohr: graduated, TC

  • volumetric: only one mark, very accurate, TD, glass bulge towards center of pipette

  • Ostwald: for viscous fluids; glass bulge of pipette towards tip

33
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what type of water should be used for the final rinse of pipettes?

type 1 water

34
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differentiate between resolution and numerical aperture in relation to microscopes

  • resolution: lowest distance between two objects that allows both objects to be seen individually

  • numerical aperture: light-gathering ability of microscope

35
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as numerical aperture increases, the resolution of the microscope ________.

increases

36
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what does parfocal mean?

ability to stay in focus as objectives are changed

37
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how does a microscope alter the image of the field being viewed?

flips it upside down and reverses it

38
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what is the function of the monochromator/filter in a spectrophotometer?

it selects the bandwith/wavelength of the solution being analyzed

39
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what is the purpose of the detector in a spectrophotometer?

it detects light transmitted through the sample

40
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what is the formula for absorbance?

absorbance= 2-log(%T)

41
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is an absorbance graph linear or logarithmic? what about a transmittance graph?

absorbance= linear; transmittance= logarithmic

42
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differentiate between the following methods: turbidometry, nephelometry, and fluorometry

  • turbidometry: detects light transmitted

  • nephelometry: detects light scatter

  • fluorometer: detects emitted light and has two filters

43
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differentiate between the following phlebotomy precautions: standard, airborne, droplet, contact, and protective

  • standard: prevent contact with blood and body fluids

  • airborne: wear gloves, gown, and a mask to avoid contact with pathogens like TB

  • droplet: wear at least gloves and a mask to avoid contact with respiratory droplets

  • contact: wear gloves and a gown to avoid pathogens like C. diff

  • protective: wear gloves, gown, and a mask to avoid exposing immunocompromised patients to additional germs

44
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if a patient has an allergy to iodine, what can be used as an alternative?

chlorhexidine

45
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what does post-prandial mean?

after a meal

46
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when should phlebotomy tubes be labeled?

at the bedside after blood has been collected

47
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what is the most desirable vein to draw from?

median antecubital

48
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how long must you wait to reapply a tourniquet if an additional phlebotomy attempt must be made?

2 minutes minimum

49
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what is the cleansing procedure associated with blood culture collection?

clean site with iodine then alcohol

50
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how many times should blood collection tubes be inverted?

eight times

51
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what is the order of draw for skin/capillary puncture?

  • EDTA

  • tubes with additives

  • tubes without additives

52
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what is the standard order of draw for phlebotomy and their associated anticoagulants?

  • yellow= SPS

  • light blue= citrate

  • red/tiger top= no additive/gel barrier for serum

  • light green= gel for plasma

  • dark green= heparin

  • lavendar= EDTA

  • gray

53
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differentiate between types 1, 2, and 3 of lab-grade water?

  • type 1: used for prep of standards, buffers, controls, and quantitative procedures; cannot be stored

  • type 2: used for qualitiative chem procedures and heme, immunology, and micro

  • type 3: used for urinalysis and washing/rinsing of glassware; least pure,

54
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differentiate between the water purification methods: distillation, deionized, charcoal, and reverse osmosis

  • distillation: does not contains minerals or microorganisms; contains volatiles

  • deionized: removes positively and negatively-charged ions in water; does not remove organic substances, particulates, or microorganisms

  • charcoal: used in combination with DI water to remove organic impurities, particulates, and microorganisms to produce type 1 water

  • reverse osmosis: removes dissolved solids, organic impurities, particulates, and microorganisms; does not remove dissolved gases or ionized particles

55
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what is the percent recovery formula?

((volume in spiked sample-baseline)/concentration added)*100

56
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what is the maximum percentage that a patient specimen can be diluted in a recovery experiment?

10%