Microbiology in Nursing: Key Concepts and Pathogens

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205 Terms

1
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Why is microbiology important in nursing and allied health?

It helps prevent infections, guides treatment decisions, supports antimicrobial stewardship, and enables effective patient education.

2
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What are HAIs and how can they be prevented?

Hospital-acquired infections; prevented through aseptic technique and understanding the human microbiome.

3
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Why is differentiating between viral and bacterial infections important?

Because antibiotics treat bacteria, not viruses—misuse can lead to resistance.

4
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How does interpreting lab reports support clinical decisions?

Identifying specific microbes helps guide appropriate treatment.

5
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How does microbiological literacy help patient education?

Enables healthcare providers to explain antibiotic use, vaccines, and infection prevention.

6
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What are the characteristics of viruses?

Acellular, 100-200 nm, DNA or RNA in a protein coat, obligate intracellular parasites.

7
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Give examples of clinically significant viruses.

Influenza virus, HIV, SARS-CoV-2.

8
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What are prions and why are they dangerous?

Misfolded proteins <10 nm, cause diseases like Creutzfeldt-Jakob, resistant to sterilization.

9
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Key traits of bacteria?

Prokaryotic, ~1 µm, peptidoglycan walls, diverse shapes, reproduce by binary fission.

10
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Name 3 types of clinically significant bacteria by Gram stain.

Gram-positive cocci: Staphylococcus aureus; Gram-negative rods: Escherichia coli; Spore-forming bacilli: Clostridioides difficile.

11
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What is the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

Gram-positive have thick peptidoglycan walls and stain purple; Gram-negative have thin peptidoglycan walls, an outer membrane with LPS/endotoxin, and stain pink/red.

12
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What makes archaea unique?

Prokaryotic, no peptidoglycan, often extremophiles, not known to cause human disease.

13
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What are protozoa and give examples.

Unicellular eukaryotes, 10-100 µm, motile; examples include Plasmodium falciparum, Giardia lamblia.

14
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What are fungi and give examples.

Eukaryotes with chitin cell walls; yeasts like Candida albicans, molds like Aspergillus fumigatus.

15
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What are helminths?

Multicellular parasitic worms; examples include Taenia solium, Ascaris lumbricoides, Schistosoma species.

16
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What is the human microbiome?

The community of microbes living in the human body that influences digestion, immunity, and mood.

17
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What is dysbiosis?

Microbial imbalance, often after antibiotics, leading to opportunistic infections like Clostridioides difficile overgrowth.

18
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Who proposed the idea of invisible particles causing disease?

Girolamo Fracastoro (1546).

19
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Who first observed microorganisms under a microscope?

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1675).

20
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What did Ignaz Semmelweis contribute to microbiology?

Showed that handwashing reduced puerperal fever.

21
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What was John Snow's key discovery?

Linked cholera outbreak to contaminated water, founding epidemiology.

22
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What are Louis Pasteur's major contributions?

Disproved spontaneous generation, developed pasteurization and vaccines for rabies and anthrax.

23
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Who introduced antiseptic surgical techniques?

Joseph Lister.

24
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What are Koch's Postulates?

Criteria to link specific microbes to specific diseases.

25
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Who discovered penicillin and how?

Alexander Fleming discovered it accidentally from Penicillium notatum mold in 1928.

26
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What did Howard Florey & Ernst Chain do?

Mass-produced penicillin, starting the antibiotic era.

27
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What's the difference between miasma and germ theory?

Miasma theory says diseases come from bad air; germ theory states microorganisms cause disease.

28
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What is aseptic technique?

Practices to prevent contamination and infection, like handwashing and sterile equipment.

29
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Define sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, degerming, and sanitization.

Sterilization: kills all microbes including spores;

Disinfection: reduces/eliminates pathogens on surfaces;

Antisepsis: reduces microbes on living tissue;

Degerming: mechanical removal of microbes (handwashing);

Sanitization: lowers microbial counts to safe public health levels.

30
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What are the 4 Biological Safety Levels (BSL)?

BSL-1: minimal risk (e.g., nonpathogenic E. coli);

BSL-2: moderate risk (e.g., S. aureus);

BSL-3: serious airborne pathogens (e.g., M. tuberculosis);

BSL-4: deadly untreatable agents (e.g., Ebola virus).

31
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Types of light microscopes and their uses?

Bright-field: basic viewing; Dark-field: unstained microbes; Phase-contrast: living cells with detail; Oil immersion: improved resolution at 100x.

32
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Describe Gram stain results.

Gram-positive bacteria stain purple with thick peptidoglycan walls; Gram-negative stain pink/red with thin walls and outer membrane.

33
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What is acid-fast stain used for?

Detecting bacteria with mycolic acid like Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

34
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Name special stains and their targets.

Capsule stain, endospore stain, flagella stain — highlight virulence factors.

35
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What are the three domains of life?

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya.

36
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What defines each domain?

Bacteria: prokaryotes with peptidoglycan; Archaea: prokaryotes without peptidoglycan, often extremophiles; Eukarya: organisms with membrane-bound nuclei.

37
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List the taxonomic hierarchy from highest to lowest.

Domain > Kingdom > Phylum > Class > Order > Family > Genus > Species.

38
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What is binomial nomenclature?

Two-part scientific naming system (Genus species), italicized with Genus capitalized.

39
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Why is proper naming important in microbiology?

Ensures clarity and avoids confusion between similar species.

40
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What are key structural features of prokaryotic cells?

Cell wall (peptidoglycan), plasma membrane, nucleoid (circular DNA), ribosomes, external appendages (flagella, pili, glycocalyx).

41
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How does the bacterial cell wall protect cells?

Peptidoglycan provides shape, resists osmotic pressure to prevent lysis in hypotonic environments.

42
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Difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell walls?

Gram-positive: thick peptidoglycan, teichoic acids, stains purple.

Gram-negative: thin peptidoglycan, outer membrane with LPS, stains pink/red.

43
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What clinical relevance does Lipid A in Gram-negative bacteria have?

Acts as endotoxin causing fever and septic shock.

44
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Name 3 major bacterial shapes.

Coccus (round), Bacillus (rod), Spirillum/Spirochete (spiral).

45
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What is binary fission?

Asexual reproduction where one bacterium splits into two identical daughter cells.

46
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What are fimbriae and their function?

Short protein filaments used for attachment to host tissues.

47
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What is the role of capsules in bacteria?

Protects against desiccation and phagocytosis; aids in adherence.

48
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Name the antibiotic class targeting bacterial cell walls.

β-lactams (penicillins, cephalosporins) and glycopeptides (vancomycin).

49
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What is the significance of plasmids in bacteria?

Carry genes for antibiotic resistance; spread via horizontal gene transfer.

50
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Which bacteria form endospores? Name two clinically important examples.

Bacillus and Clostridium species (e.g., Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium difficile).

51
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What is the Gram reaction and clinical importance of Staphylococcus aureus?

Gram-positive cocci in clusters; causes skin infections, pneumonia, MRSA is antibiotic-resistant.

52
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What type of bacteria is Escherichia coli and what diseases does it cause?

Gram-negative rod; causes UTIs, diarrhea, sepsis.

53
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How do bacteria acquire antibiotic resistance genes?

Through conjugation, transformation, and transduction.

54
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Why is infection control critical in healthcare regarding bacteria?

Prevents spread of resistant bacteria; requires hand hygiene, aseptic technique, and antimicrobial stewardship.

55
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What staining method is used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Acid-fast (Ziehl-Neelsen) stain.

56
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Name the main oxygen requirements types of bacteria.

Obligate aerobes, obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, microaerophiles, aerotolerant.

57
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What is the function of bacterial flagella?

Motility (movement).

58
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What role do porins in Gram-negative bacteria play?

Allow nutrient entry; restrict some antibiotics.

59
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Name a bacterial genus that lacks a cell wall.

Mycoplasma.

60
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What defines prokaryotes compared to eukaryotes?

Lack membrane-bound nucleus, have circular DNA in nucleoid, smaller 70S ribosomes, no membrane-bound organelles.

61
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What happens to a bacterial cell in hypotonic vs. hypertonic solutions?

Hypotonic: water enters; with cell wall, cell resists lysis; without wall, may lyse.

Hypertonic: water leaves; plasmolysis occurs.

62
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What is the function of teichoic acids in Gram-positive bacteria?

Contribute to virulence and inflammation.

63
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What is the periplasmic space in Gram-negative bacteria?

Space between outer and inner membranes containing enzymes.

64
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What are the components of LPS (lipopolysaccharide)?

Lipid A (endotoxin), core polysaccharide, O-antigen.

65
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What is the significance of biofilms in bacterial infections?

Protect bacteria from antibiotics and immune response, contribute to chronic infections.

66
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Describe the main types of bacterial arrangements.

Diplococci (pairs), streptococci (chains), staphylococci (clusters), tetrads, sarcinae (cubical packets), palisades (parallel rods).

67
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What does the Gram stain differentiate?

Bacteria by cell wall structure: Gram-positive (purple), Gram-negative (pink/red).

68
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What is the glycocalyx?

Sugar-rich outer layer; includes capsule and slime layer.

69
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What is the difference between a capsule and slime layer?

Capsule is organized and protective; slime layer is loose and aids biofilm formation.

70
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What are the different flagella arrangements?

Monotrichous (single), amphitrichous (both ends), lophotrichous (tufts), peritrichous (all over).

71
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What size and type are bacterial ribosomes?

70S (30S + 50S subunits).

72
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What are bacterial inclusions?

Storage granules for nutrients (e.g., glycogen, sulfur).

73
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How do bacteria exchange genetic material?

Conjugation (via F pilus), transformation (uptake free DNA), transduction (via bacteriophage).

74
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List oxygen requirement types with examples.

Obligate aerobes (Mycobacterium), obligate anaerobes (Clostridium), facultative anaerobes (E. coli), microaerophiles (Helicobacter), aerotolerant (Streptococcus).

75
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What temperatures do mesophiles prefer?

20-45°C (human body temp range).

76
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What antibiotic class targets bacterial protein synthesis?

Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, macrolides, lincosamides.

77
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Name an antibiotic targeting bacterial DNA synthesis.

Fluoroquinolones.

78
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What is the mode of action of sulfonamides?

Inhibit folate synthesis (metabolic pathway inhibitors).

79
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How do polymyxins work?

Disrupt Gram-negative outer membrane.

80
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What are R plasmids?

Plasmids carrying antibiotic resistance genes.

81
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Name a spore-forming Gram-positive pathogen causing gas gangrene.

Clostridium perfringens.

82
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How are bacterial endospores destroyed?

Autoclaving (steam under pressure) or sporicidal agents like bleach.

83
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What class of bacteria does Neisseria gonorrhoeae belong to?

Gram-negative diplococcus.

84
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What disease does Vibrio cholerae cause?

Cholera—profuse watery diarrhea.

85
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Which bacteria is a common cause of healthcare-associated pneumonia?

Klebsiella pneumoniae.

86
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How is tuberculosis transmitted?

Airborne droplets.

87
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What bacteria can grow at refrigeration temperatures and cause meningitis?

Listeria monocytogenes.

88
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What bacterial structure is targeted by isoniazid?

Mycolic acid synthesis in acid-fast bacteria.

89
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Why is knowledge of bacterial morphology important clinically?

Helps rapid identification and guides empiric antibiotic therapy.

90
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What is the nurse's role in infection control?

Hand hygiene, aseptic technique, isolation precautions, antimicrobial stewardship.

91
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What causes pseudomembranous colitis?

Clostridioides difficile overgrowth after antibiotic use.

92
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Which bacterium causes necrotizing fasciitis?

Streptococcus pyogenes.

93
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What bacterial group includes cyanobacteria?

Phototrophic bacteria.

94
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What are microaerophiles?

Bacteria that require low oxygen levels.

95
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What is the clinical significance of bacterial capsules?

Enhance virulence by evading phagocytosis.

96
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Name three bacteria that produce endospores.

Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium tetani, Clostridioides difficile.

97
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What kind of bacteria are Mycoplasmas?

Lack cell walls; resistant to β-lactam antibiotics.

98
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What pathogen is associated with foodborne gastroenteritis caused by a curved rod?

Campylobacter jejuni.

99
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What bacterial structure allows conjugation?

F pilus (sex pilus).

100
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What distinguishes prokaryotes from eukaryotes?

Prokaryotes lack a membrane-bound nucleus and have circular DNA in a nucleoid.