Auto Immune Disorders (Chatgpt)

Question: What term did Paul Ehrlich use to describe the immune system attacking the host itself?
A) Molecular mimicry
B) Horror autotoxicus
C) Autoimmune synergy
D) Immune misdirection

Answer: B) Horror autotoxicus

Question: Autoimmunity occurs when the immune system fails to distinguish:
A) Innate from adaptive immunity
B) B cells from T cells
C) Self-antigens from non-self antigens
D) Complement from antibodies

Answer: C) Self-antigens from non-self antigens

Question: Autoimmune diseases are more common in which demographic?
A) Men
B) Women
C) Children
D) Elderly men

Answer: B) Women

Question: Which HLA type increases the risk for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A) HLA-B27
B) HLA-DR3/DR4
C) HLA-A02
D) HLA-DQ8 only

Answer: B) HLA-DR3/DR4

Question: UV radiation can trigger autoimmune disease by:
A) Enhancing cytokine release
B) Destroying macrophages
C) Altering self-antigens
D) Increasing antibody half-life

Answer: C) Altering self-antigens

Question: Which drug can cause lupus-like symptoms?
A) Methotrexate
B) Procainamide
C) Prednisone
D) Metformin

Answer: B) Procainamide

Question: Immune complex deposition typically results in:
A) Hormone overproduction
B) Complement activation
C) Decreased vascular permeability
D) Reduced inflammation

Answer: B) Complement activation

Question: Which complement fragments function as anaphylatoxins?
A) C1q and C4b
B) C3a and C5a
C) C7a and C9a
D) C2b and C6a

Answer: B) C3a and C5a

Question: Direct cytotoxic T-cell attack is characteristic of:
A) Myasthenia gravis
B) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
C) SLE
D) Graves’ disease

Answer: B) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

Question: Antibody-mediated destruction involves:
A) NK cell suppression
B) Opsonization
C) Hypertrophy of tissues
D) Inhibition of complement

Answer: B) Opsonization

Question: Central tolerance occurs in:
A) Lymph nodes
B) Spleen
C) Thymus and bone marrow
D) Liver

Answer: C) Thymus and bone marrow

Question: Negative selection removes lymphocytes that:
A) Cannot bind antigen
B) Bind self-antigens too strongly
C) Are memory cells
D) Have low-affinity receptors

Answer: B) Bind self-antigens too strongly

Question: Peripheral tolerance prevents autoimmunity by:
A) Overproducing antibodies
B) Anergy and suppression
C) Clonal expansion
D) Increasing cytokine storms

Answer: B) Anergy and suppression

Question: Regulatory T-cells suppress self-reactive cells through:
A) IL-4 and IL-2
B) IL-10 and TGF-β
C) TNF-α
D) IL-8

Answer: B) IL-10 and TGF-β

Question: Anergy in B cells results in:
A) Apoptosis
B) Hyperresponsiveness
C) Immunologic unresponsiveness
D) Antibody overproduction

Answer: C) Immunologic unresponsiveness

Question: Receptor editing in B cells helps prevent:
A) Complement activation
B) Self-reactivity
C) Loss of memory cells
D) Overproduction of IgE

Answer: B) Self-reactivity

Question: CTLA-4 polymorphisms are associated with:
A) Addison’s disease
B) Graves’ disease
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Myasthenia gravis

Answer: B) Graves’ disease

Question: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus primarily produces which autoantibody?
A) Anti-TPO
B) Anti-dsDNA
C) Anti-CCP
D) Anti-GAD65

Answer: B) Anti-dsDNA

Question: Immune complex deposition in SLE activates the:
A) Lectin pathway
B) Classical pathway
C) Alternative pathway
D) Terminal pathway only

Answer: B) Classical pathway

Question: A classic symptom of SLE is:
A) Exophthalmos
B) Butterfly rash
C) Dry mouth
D) Muscle fatigability

Answer: B) Butterfly rash

Question: Low C3 and C4 levels in SLE indicate:
A) Complement overproduction
B) Active disease flares
C) Remission
D) Complete resolution

Answer: B) Active disease flares

Question: Raynaud’s phenomenon results from:
A) Increased insulin levels
B) Vasoconstriction due to cold or stress
C) Overproduction of cortisol
D) Thyroid enlargement

Answer: B) Vasoconstriction due to cold or stress

Question: Immune complexes in the kidneys cause:
A) Renal hyperactivity
B) Hematuria
C) Goiter
D) Hyperpigmentation

Answer: B) Hematuria

Question: Hydroxychloroquine in SLE is used to treat:
A) Thyroid dysfunction
B) Skin and joint symptoms
C) Liver damage
D) Neuromuscular weakness

Answer: B) Skin and joint symptoms

Question: Complement deficiencies (C2, C4) increase risk for:
A) Hashimoto’s disease
B) SLE
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Addison’s disease

Answer: B) SLE

Question: Cigarette smoking is a strong environmental trigger for:
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Sjögren’s syndrome
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Addison’s disease

Answer: C) Rheumatoid arthritis

Question: The primary tissue affected in RA is the:
A) Salivary glands
B) Synovial membrane
C) Thyroid follicles
D) Pancreatic islets

Answer: B) Synovial membrane

Question: The best diagnostic marker for RA is:
A) RF
B) Anti-CCP
C) ANA
D) Anti-Sm

Answer: B) Anti-CCP

Question: Rheumatoid factor is an antibody targeting the:
A) Fc portion of IgG
B) Fab portion of IgM
C) Thyroid receptor
D) TSH molecule

Answer: A) Fc portion of IgG

Question: Pannus in RA is composed of:
A) Muscle and nerve
B) Granulation tissue with immune cells
C) Adipose tissue
D) Epithelial cells only

Answer: B) Granulation tissue with immune cells

Question: TNF-α in RA promotes:
A) Osteoblast activity
B) Osteoclast production
C) Platelet aggregation
D) Excessive sweating

Answer: B) Osteoclast production

Question: RANKL in RA is responsible for:
A) Inhibiting osteoclasts
B) Activating osteoclasts
C) Increasing thyroid hormone
D) Stimulating cortisol

Answer: B) Activating osteoclasts

Question: Sjögren’s syndrome primarily affects:
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Exocrine glands
C) Parathyroid glands
D) Pancreatic beta cells

Answer: B) Exocrine glands

Question: Hallmark antibodies in Sjögren’s syndrome are:
A) Anti-TPO and anti-TG
B) Anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La
C) Anti-TSHR and TSI
D) Anti-GAD65 and IA2

Answer: B) Anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La

Question: Dry eyes in Sjögren’s syndrome is known as:
A) Myositis
B) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
C) Xeroderma
D) Retinitis

Answer: B) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

Question: Schirmer’s test evaluates:
A) Muscle strength
B) Tear production
C) Thyroid activity
D) Cortisol levels

Answer: B) Tear production

Question: A hallmark histological feature of Sjögren’s syndrome is:
A) Crescent formation
B) Lymphocytic glandular infiltration
C) Necrosis of the adrenal cortex
D) Demyelination

Answer: B) Lymphocytic glandular infiltration

Question: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves which key antibody?
A) Anti-La
B) PR3-ANCA
C) TSH receptor antibodies
D) Anti-TPO

Answer: B) PR3-ANCA

Question: PR3-ANCA is also known as:
A) ANA
B) c-ANCA
C) p-ANCA
D) RF

Answer: B) c-ANCA

Question: GPA commonly affects which organ systems?
A) Liver and spleen
B) Upper respiratory tract, lungs, kidneys
C) Thyroid and pancreas
D) GI tract only

Answer: B) Upper respiratory tract, lungs, kidneys

Question: Crescent formation in the kidneys is associated with:
A) Sjögren’s syndrome
B) Graves’ disease
C) GPA
D) Hashimoto’s

Answer: C) GPA

Question: Severe GPA may require which treatment?
A) Vitamin D
B) Plasma exchange
C) Insulin
D) Levothyroxine

Answer: B) Plasma exchange

Question: Type 1 Diabetes involves destruction of:
A) Alpha cells
B) Beta cells
C) Delta cells
D) Parietal cells

Answer: B) Beta cells

Question: Most common autoantibody in Type 1 DM is:
A) Anti-TPO
B) Anti-GAD65
C) Anti-La
D) Anti-TSHR

Answer: B) Anti-GAD65

Question: HbA1c is used to monitor:
A) Short-term cortisol levels
B) Long-term glucose control
C) Thyroid hormone
D) Complement levels

Answer: B) Long-term glucose control

Question: Anti-IA2 antibodies in Type 1 DM indicate:
A) Mild disease
B) Aggressive beta cell destruction
C) Remission
D) Iron deficiency

Answer: B) Aggressive beta cell destruction

Question: Anti-ZnT8 is a marker for:
A) Hashimoto’s
B) Type 1 Diabetes
C) Addison’s disease
D) Myasthenia gravis

Answer: B) Type 1 Diabetes

Question: Graves’ disease is caused by antibodies that:
A) Destroy thyroid cells
B) Block thyroid receptors
C) Stimulate TSH receptors
D) Attack thyroglobulin

Answer: C) Stimulate TSH receptors

Question: TSH receptor antibodies are also called:
A) Anti-TPO
B) Anti-TG
C) TSI
D) TRH-IgG

Answer: C) TSI

Question: Graves’ disease results in:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Low T3/T4
D) High TSH

Answer: B) Hyperthyroidism

Question: A classic sign of Graves’ disease is:
A) Moon face
B) Exophthalmos
C) Dark skin patches
D) Goiter with low T3

Answer: B) Exophthalmos

Question: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis leads to:
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Excess calcium
D) Aldosterone excess

Answer: B) Hypothyroidism

Question: Key autoantibodies in Hashimoto’s include:
A) Anti-CCP
B) Anti-TPO and anti-TG
C) Anti-La
D) Anti-GAD65

Answer: B) Anti-TPO and anti-TG

Question: Patients with Hashimoto’s often experience:
A) Heat intolerance
B) Cold intolerance
C) Weight loss
D) Tachycardia

Answer: B) Cold intolerance

Question: Addison’s disease involves autoimmune destruction of the:
A) Adrenal medulla
B) Adrenal cortex
C) Thyroid
D) Pancreatic duct

Answer: B) Adrenal cortex

Question: Addison’s disease causes deficiency of:
A) Estrogen
B) Cortisol and aldosterone
C) Insulin
D) Thyroxine

Answer: B) Cortisol and aldosterone

Question: A hallmark symptom of Addison’s disease is:
A) Exophthalmos
B) Hyperpigmentation
C) Bradycardia
D) Goiter

Answer: B) Hyperpigmentation

Question: Key antibodies in Addison’s disease target:
A) TSH
B) TPO
C) 21-hydroxylase
D) GAD65

Answer: C) 21-hydroxylase

Question: Pernicious anemia results from destruction of:
A) Chief cells
B) Parietal cells
C) Beta cells
D) Follicular cells

Answer: B) Parietal cells

Question: Pernicious anemia leads to deficiency of:
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B12
C) Folate only
D) Iron

Answer: B) Vitamin B12

Question: Intrinsic factor is required for absorption of B12 in the:
A) Duodenum
B) Ileum
C) Jejunum
D) Colon

Answer: B) Ileum

Question: Achlorhydria in pernicious anemia results from loss of:
A) Mucous cells
B) Gastrin
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Enzymes

Answer: C) Hydrochloric acid

Question: Myasthenia gravis is caused by antibodies against:
A) TSH receptor
B) Acetylcholine receptors
C) Voltage-gated calcium channels
D) ACTH receptors

Answer: B) Acetylcholine receptors

Question: A classic feature of myasthenia gravis is:
A) Muscle weakness that improves with activity
B) Muscle weakness that worsens with activity
C) Weight gain
D) Excessive salivation

Answer: B) Muscle weakness that worsens with activity

Question: First-line treatment for Myasthenia gravis includes:
A) Methimazole
B) Pyridostigmine
C) Vitamin B12 injections
D) Radioactive iodine

Answer: B) Pyridostigmin