Private Pilot ASEL

What three personal documents must a pilot have readily accessible when exercising certificate privileges under FAR 61.3?

Pilot certificate, government-issued photo ID, FAA medical certificate of appropriate class.

How long is a temporary pilot certificate valid?

120 days from the date of issuance.

Which FAR lists prerequisites for a practical test?

FAR 61.39.

How often is a Flight Review required under FAR 61.56?

Every 24 calendar months.

What FAR governs recent flight experience for PIC?

FAR 61.57.

Minimum medical class for an Airline Transport Pilot (ATP)?

First-Class medical.

Minimum medical class for Commercial Pilot privileges?

Second-Class medical.

Minimum medical class for Private, Recreational, or Student Pilot operations?

Third-Class medical.

how long does a First-Class medical last for pilots under the age 40?

12 calendar months, then reverts to Third-Class for the next 48 months.

Validity of a First-Class medical for pilots over 40?

6 calendar months, then reverts to Second-Class for 6 more, then Third-Class for 12.

What is a Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA)?

FAA authorization allowing issuance of a medical certificate when a static/non-progressive condition exists that the airman can safely compensate for.

BasicMed—name two general requirements to qualify.

Must hold a U.S. driver’s license and have held a valid FAA medical any time after 14 July 2006.

List the four BasicMed steps in order.

1) Meet general eligibility, 2) physical exam with state-licensed physician using checklist, 3) complete online BasicMed course, 4) fly within BasicMed limits.

What does ARROW stand for regarding required aircraft documents?

Airworthiness Certificate, Registration, Radio license (if international), Operating Handbook/AFM, Weight & balance

Under FAR 91.205 what mnemonic lists VFR-day required equipment?

ATOMs² fleaf

What additional equipment is required for VFR night flight?

FLAPS – Fuses, Landing light (for hire), Anti-collision lights, Position lights, Source of electricity.

If equipment is inoperative and no MEL exists, what 4-step process (91.213) is used?

1) Check 91.205 day/night list, 2) Type Certificate Data Sheet, 3) Airworthiness Directives, 4) Kinds-of-Operations list; if still not required, deactivate/remove/placard and log entry.

Differentiate master minimum equipment list and minimum equipment list

MMEL is a master list for an aircraft type; MEL is aircraft-specific (tail-number) and requires FAA Letter of Authorization.

GAAVIATES mnemonic covers which inspections?

G-GPS database (28 days), A-Annual (12 mo), A-ADs (per AD), V-VOR (30 days IFR), I-100-hour (if for hire), A-Altimeter/Pitot-static (24 mo IFR), T-Transponder (24 mo), E-ELT (12 mo/1-hr/50%), S-Static system (24 mo IFR).

How far may a 100-hour inspection be exceeded when ferrying to maintenance?

Up to 10 flight hours; excess hours count toward next 100-hour interval.

Regulation for obtaining a Special Flight Permit?

FAR 21.197 via local FSDO.

Define WxKRAFTN used in 91.103 preflight planning.

Weather, Known ATC delays, Runway lengths, Alternate airports, Fuel requirements, Takeoff/landing distances, NOTAMs.

List the four categories of airspace.

Controlled, Uncontrolled, Special Use, Other.

Class A vertical limits.

18,000 MSL up to and including FL 600.

Typical dimensions of Class C airspace.

5 NM radius surface to 4,000 AGL, plus 10 NM shelf from 1,200 AGL to 4,000 AGL.

Magenta dashed line on a sectional denotes which airspace?

Class E beginning at the surface.

Minimum safe altitudes (FAR 91.119) over uncongested areas?

500 ft AGL, and 500 ft horizontally from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

what force acts perpendicular to the flight path and opposes/ overcomes the force of weight

lift

What is Critical Angle of Attack?

Angle at which airflow separates causing a stall; independent of airspeed.

Which wing planform tends to stall at the root first?

Rectangular wing (also designs with washout).

Define parasite drag and its three sub-types.

Drag not associated with lift: Skin-friction, Form, Interference.

When are wingtip vortices strongest?

Heavy, Clean, Slow aircraft—especially takeoff, climb, landing.

Wake turbulence takeoff avoidance technique.

Rotate prior to preceding aircraft’s rotation point and climb above its flight path or sidestep upwind.

Four left-turning tendencies in a single-engine prop.

Torque, Spiraling slipstream, Gyroscopic precession, P-factor (asymmetric thrust).

Define Maneuvering Speed (VA).

Maximum speed at which full, abrupt control deflection will stall the airplane before structural limits are exceeded.

Load factor in a 60° level bank.

2 Gs.

Normal category positive load factor limit.

+3.8 G (-1.52 G negative).

Describe positive static stability.

Initial tendency to return toward original attitude after disturbance.

What design features improve lateral stability?

Dihedral, sweepback, keel effect, proper weight distribution.

Adverse yaw—cause and correction.

Down aileron increases induced drag causing nose to yaw opposite turn; coordinated rudder input counters it.

Slip vs skid indication on inclinometer ball.

Slip—ball to inside of turn; Skid—ball to outside.

Explain the PARE spin recovery mnemonic.

Power idle, Ailerons neutral, Rudder full opposite, Elevator forward to break stall.

Purpose of propeller twist.

Maintains uniform angle of attack and thrust along blade because tip moves faster than root.

Constant-speed prop: Which cockpit control adjusts RPM?

Blue propeller (prop) control lever connected to the governor.

Governor fails (loss of oil pressure) – what happens to blade pitch?

Propeller goes to high-RPM, low-pitch setting for fail-safe operation.

DA-40 engine model and rated horsepower.

Lycoming IO-360-M1A, 180 HP at 2700 RPM.

How many fuel pumps in the DA-40 and when is the electric pump used?

Two pumps: mechanical for normal ops; electric for engine start, takeoff/landing, and tank switching.

Total usable fuel in standard-tank DA-40.

40.2 gallons usable (20.1 each wing).

Maximum fuel imbalance permitted in DA-40.

10 gallons.

Minimum oil quantity for flight in DA-40 (VFR)?

4 quarts (6 quarts if IFR).

Electrical system voltage/current on DA-40.

28-volt, 70-amp alternator; 24-volt, 11-amp-hour battery.

Essential Bus purpose.

Provides power to critical flight instruments/equipment for at least 30 minutes after alternator failure.

Name three items on the Essential Avionics Bus.

PFD, ADC, AHRS (others include COM1, GPS/NAV1, transponder, etc.).

Pitot-static instruments driven by the GDC Air Data Computer.

Airspeed indicator, altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, OAT input.

What principle keeps a spinning gyro rigid in space?

Rigidity in space due to conservation of angular momentum.

At what cabin pressure altitudes must pilots continuously use supplemental oxygen under 91.211?

Above 14,000 ft MSL for crew; above 15,000 ft MSL oxygen must be available to passengers.

Describe a microburst.

Severe, localized downdraft with windshear; lifespan 5–15 min; downdrafts up to 6,000 ft/min and 30-90 kt wind shift.

Meaning of a solid single white and single green beacon flash sequence.

Civilian land airport.

How can a pilot activate pilot-controlled lighting to medium intensity?

Key microphone 5 times within 5 seconds on CTAF frequency.

Runway edge light color on last 2,000 ft of an instrument runway.

Amber (yellow).

Color of taxiway edge lights.

Blue.

Runway holding position marking pattern.

Two solid yellow lines and two dashed yellow lines across taxiway at runway edge (hold short at solid side).

What does a mandatory instruction sign with “25-7” indicate?

Runway hold short for intersecting Runway 07-25 (approach ends left and right of taxiway).

Taxiway centerline enhanced markings purpose.

Alert crews that they are approaching a runway hold short line (appears 150 ft in advance).

Meaning of a yellow demarcation bar.

Separates displaced threshold or blast pad from runway usable for takeoff/landing.

What is a Hot Spot on airport diagrams?

Location on movement area with history/potential for collision or runway incursion; highlighted on charts.

Sterile cockpit rule altitude limit for non-critical phases (Part 121/135).

Below 10,000 ft MSL (except cruise) no non-essential duties or conversation.

Recommended phraseology for positive exchange of flight controls.

“You have the flight controls.” “I have the flight controls.” “You have the flight controls.” with visual confirmation.

CTAF meaning and typical use.

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency; used for self-announce procedures at non-towered airports.

UNICOM purpose.

Advisory station (often FBO) providing airport info, services, and may act as CTAF if no RCO/CTAF designated.

Light gun signal – steady green in flight.

Cleared to land.

Light gun signal – flashing red on ground.

Taxi clear of runway in use.

What does L in ATOMATOFLAMES stand for?

Landing gear position indicator (for retractable gear aircraft).

Minimum fuel reserve for VFR day flight? (FAR 91.151)

Enough to fly to first point of intended landing plus 30 minutes at normal cruise (45 min at night).

Speed limit below 10,000 ft MSL (91.117).

250 KIAS.

VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace below 1,200 AGL at night.

3 sm visibility, 1,000 ft above, 500 ft below, 2,000 ft horizontal from clouds.

Right-of-way rule between aircraft of different categories.

Balloon > Glider > Airship > Powered-parachute > Airplane > Rotorcraft.

Explain dihedral effect on stability.

Wings angled upward from root; sideslip produces restoring rolling moment improving lateral stability.

Forward CG effect on stall speed.

Increases stall speed due to higher wing loading and need for greater tail-down force.

AFT CG effect on cruise speed.

Higher cruise speed due to reduced tail-down force and drag.

Define useful load.

Weight of pilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel, and drainable oil.

Where is unusable fuel accounted for in W&B?

Included in Basic Empty Weight.

Moment definition in weight & balance.

Product of weight and arm (distance) expressed in inch-pounds.

Normal vs Utility category purpose.

Normal: standard maneuvers; Utility: limited aerobatic maneuvers (steep turns, stalls, spins if approved).

Four forces of flight and direction each acts.

Lift (up), Weight (down), Thrust (forward), Drag (rearward).

When lift equals weight and thrust equals drag, aircraft condition?

Straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight.

Function of flaps during takeoff or landing.

Increase lift and induced drag allowing steeper climb or slower approach without stall.

who is authorized to do annual inspection

A&P mechanic with inspection authorization

Anti-servo tab purpose on DA-40.

Moves with elevator but more deflection, increasing control feel and providing trim capability.

Describe semi-monocoque construction.

Skin, stringers, and bulkheads share structural loads; used in composite DA-40 airframe.

What is interference drag?

Drag from airstreams meeting at junctions like wing-fuselage causing turbulence.

how to avoid Skin-friction drag

Smooth, clean aircraft surfaces.

Torque effect tendency on takeoff roll.

Aircraft rolls left (counterclockwise) due to propeller spinning clockwise viewed from cockpit.

Spiraling slipstream affects which control surface?

Hits left side of vertical stabilizer, yawing nose left.

Gyroscopic precession most noticeable in which aircraft type?

Tailwheel aircraft during takeoff or landing when pitching.

P-factor occurs under what flight condition?

High angle of attack (climb), producing greater thrust on descending blade.

Describe a Fuel Injected vs Carbureted engine difference.

Fuel injection sprays fuel directly into intake port/cylinder; carburetor mixes air/fuel in venturi and is prone to icing.

Indication of carburetor icing (if carb engine).

RPM drop and roughness; apply carb heat to clear.

Hydraulic disc brakes—parking brake operation in DA-40.

Pilot pumps toe brakes, sets parking brake lever; one-way valve traps pressure.

What bus powers standby attitude indicator after total electrical failure?

Emergency bus powered by 90-minute lithium battery.