PTLE 2026 MSK LE Conditions

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A comprehensive set of 100 flashcards covering lower extremity orthopedic conditions, diagnostic signs, and management protocols based on the MDPT lecture.

Last updated 3:27 PM on 8/19/26
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100 Terms

1
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What is a Duverney’s fracture?

An isolated iliac wing fracture that is considered stable.

2
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How is a Malgaigne fracture defined?

A double vertical fracture of the anterior and posterior pelvic ring that is considered unstable.

3
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What is the muscle and site involved in an avulsion fracture of a sprinter coming out of the block?

Sartorius - ASIS (AnteriorAnterior SuperiorSuperior IliacIliac SpineSpine)

4
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Which muscle and site are associated with an avulsion fracture from a soccer player's forceful kick?

Rectus femoris - AIIS (AnteriorAnterior InferiorInferior IliacIliac SpineSpine)

5
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What is the site of an avulsion fracture for a runner competing in the hurdles?

Hamstrings - ischial tuberosity

6
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Which muscles and site are involved in an avulsion fracture for a tennis player changing directions?

Abdominals, gluteus medius, and tensor fasciae latae (TLTL) - iliac crest

7
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What is the most common complication of pelvic fractures?

Bleeding

8
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Which organs are commonly affected in pelvic fractures?

Urinary bladder and urethra

9
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What is the most common complication of a femoral neck fracture?

Avascular necrosis

10
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How is Osteitis Pubis described?

Inflammation of the symphysis pubis, occurring more in males than females.

11
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What is a common cause of Osteitis Pubis in females?

Pregnancy due to increased relaxin.

12
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What does an x-ray of Osteitis Pubis typically show?

A moth eaten appearance

13
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What is the term for a ruptured ligament in the pubic area?

Diastasia Symphysis Pubis

14
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What is the most common site of metastasis for Multiple Myeloma?

Innominate bone

15
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What characterizes the pain in Multiple Myeloma?

Nocturnal nagging pain

16
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What is the characteristic x-ray finding for Multiple Myeloma?

Mickey mouse lesion (punched out appearance)

17
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What is a Hip Pointer Injury?

A contusion to the ASIS (or iliac crest) due to direct trauma.

18
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How is true limb length discrepancy (LLDLLD) measured?

From the ASIS to the medial malleolus.

19
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How is apparent limb length discrepancy (LLDLLD) measured?

From the umbilicus to the medial malleolus.

20
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At what measurement is limb length discrepancy considered significant?

>2cm>2\,cm

21
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In Anterior Innominate Syndrome (ALSUPALSUP), how does the affected leg appear in supine vs. sitting?

In supine the affected leg is longer; in sitting it is shorter.

22
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In Posterior Innominate Syndrome (PSSUPPSSUP), how does the affected leg appear in supine vs. sitting?

In supine the affected leg is shorter; in sitting it is longer.

23
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What are three alternative names (AKAsAKAs) for Ischiogluteal Bursitis?

Boatman’s Bottom, Tailor’s Bottom, and Weaver’s Bottom.

24
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What is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFESCFE)?

Downward slippage of the femoral head from the growth plate, moving downward and in external rotation (ERER).

25
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What is the most common hip pathology in adolescents?

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFESCFE)

26
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What is Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease (LCPDLCPD)?

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head in children, often resulting in coxa plana.

27
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What is Chandler’s Disease?

Avascular necrosis (AVNAVN) of the femoral head in adults.

28
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What are the typical physical characteristics of a child with SCFESCFE?

Male, tall, and obese, usually aged 131913-19.

29
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What are the typical physical characteristics of a child with LCPDLCPD?

Male, short, and thin, usually aged 484-8 (average:7average: 7).

30
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What gait is associated with LCPDLCPD?

Psoatic gait

31
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What gait is associated with SCFESCFE?

Trendelenburg or Waddling gait

32
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What is the best treatment duration for a LCPDLCPD orthosis?

12yrs1-2\,yrs

33
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Which orthosis for LCPDLCPD is considered the most functional because it allows flexion?

Scottish Rite

34
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In Waldenstrom Stages for LCPDLCPD, what is found in Stage I (Necrosis/Initial)?

Sagging rope sign (thin sclerotic line due to blood supply loss).

35
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In Waldenstrom Stages for LCPDLCPD, what is found in Stage II (Fragmentation)?

Crescent sign leading to coxa plana.

36
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What is Coxa Magna?

An enlarged femoral head.

37
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What is Coxa Breva?

A short and broad femoral neck.

38
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What is the purpose of Ortolani’s Test?

To evaluate a Congenital Hip Dislocation (dislocatedatbirthdislocated at birth).

39
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What is the purpose of Barlow’s Test?

To evaluate a Congenital Dislocatable Hip (intactatbirthbutunstableintact at birth but unstable).

40
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What is a Teratologic Hip Dislocation?

A fixed hip dislocation prenatally caused by arthrogryposis multiplex congenita.

41
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What is Acetabular Dysplasia?

A shallow hip socket caused by an absent cotyloid ligament.

42
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What are the movements allowed by the Pavlik Harness?

Hip flexion, abduction, and external rotation (FABERFABER).

43
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What is a dashboard injury often associated with in young patients?

Posterior hip dislocation or PCLPCL injury due to a motor vehicle accident (MVAMVA).

44
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Which THA approach is most common?

Posterolateral approach

45
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In THA, what does PMMAPMMA stand for?

PolyMethyl Meth-Acrylate

46
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What is the weight-bearing protocol for a cemented THA?

As tolerated within <24hrs<24\,hrs.

47
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What is the weight-bearing protocol for a non-cemented THA?

Limited up to 3mos3\,mos (at least 6wks6\,wks).

48
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What are the hip precautions for a posterolateral approach THA?

No hip flexion >90>90^{\circ}, no adduction, and no internal rotation (IRIR).

49
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What is a specific contraindication for THA if the Gluteus Medius was incised?

Abduction

50
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What is the normal adult Neck-Shaft Angle?

125125^{\circ} (range:120135range: 120-135^{\circ})

51
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In Coxa Vara, how is the leg length and hip rotation characterized?

Shorter leg length with internal rotation (IRIR).

52
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What does the mnemonic PISA stand for in relation to Coxa Valga?

Pronated foot, Internal rotation, Shorter, APT (AnteriorAnterior PelvicPelvic TiltTilt).

53
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What is the normal adult Torsion Angle of the hip?

1515^{\circ} (range:815range: 8-15^{\circ})

54
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What special test is used to measure the torsion angle?

Craig’s or Ryder’s Test

55
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What knee finding is associated with hip Anteversion?

Squinting Patella

56
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What knee finding is associated with hip Retroversion?

Frog’s Eye or Grasshopper’s Eye Patella

57
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What is Internal Snapping Hip caused by?

A tight iliopsoas or iliofemoral ligament hitting the iliopectineal line or hip capsule.

58
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What is the most common type of snapping hip?

External Snapping Hip (tight ITBITB hitting the greater trochanter).

59
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What is Meralgia Paresthetica?

Impingement of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve at the inguinal ligament.

60
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Which muscle is the most commonly strained in the lower extremity?

Hamstrings

61
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What is the MOI for an adductor longus strain?

Forceful abduction

62
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What is the most common site for a muscle contusion, also known as a 'Charlie Horse'?

Quadriceps (rectus femoris).

63
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Where are the most common sites for Heterotrophic Ossification in SCI and Burns?

Hip for SCISCI; posterior elbow for burns.

64
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What medication is used for Heterotrophic Ossification?

Disodium etidronate

65
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What is Myositis Ossificans (MOMO)?

Abnormal bone growth in the muscle caused by trauma or contusion.

66
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What is a major contraindication in the management of Myositis Ossificans?

Passive ROM, stretching, and massage.

67
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What is Osgood-Schlatter Disease?

Inflammation of the patellar tendon at the tibial tuberosity, causing bilateral enlargement.

68
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How is Jumper’s Knee defined?

Patellar tendinitis (inflammation of any part of the tendon), commonly in adults.

69
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What patellar position is associated with a Patellar Tendon Tear?

Patella alta (movablepatellamovable patella).

70
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What patellar position is associated with a Quadriceps Tendon Tear?

Patella baja (immovablepatellaimmovable patella).

71
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Where is the most common site for Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCDOCD)?

Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle.

72
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What is Sinding-Larsen Johansson Disease?

A lesion at the inferior pole of the patella.

73
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What is Hoffa’s Disease?

Impingement of the infrapatellar fat pad between the femur and tibia.

74
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What is the Cinema sign (or Theater sign)?

Pain during prolonged sitting associated with Chondromalacia Patella (PFPSPFPS).

75
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Which muscle weakness is targeted for strengthening in PFPSPFPS?

VMOVMO (VastusVastus MedialisMedialis ObliquusObliquus)

76
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What is the most common deformity associated with Knee Osteoarthritis?

Genu varum

77
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What is Pelligrini-Stieda Disease?

Ossification of the MCLMCL (MedialMedial CollateralCollateral LigamentLigament).

78
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In the Unhappy Triad, which three structures are injured?

MCLMCL, ACLACL, and medial meniscus.

79
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What are the three most common mechanisms of injury for the PCLPCL?

Dashboard injury, kicked in the shin, or falling on a flexed knee with a PFPF (plantarflexedplantarflexed) ankle.

80
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What is the 'Gold Standard' graft for ACLACL reconstruction?

Bone-Patellar Tendon-Bone Graft

81
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What is the strengthening protocol for an ACLACL injury?

Hamstrings >> Quadriceps

82
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What is the strengthening protocol for a PCLPCL injury?

Quadriceps >> Hamstrings

83
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What is the most common cause of Genu Recurvatum?

Weak or paralyzed quadriceps (e.g., polio) or spasticity (e.g., CVACVA).

84
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Which bursa inflammation is known as Housemaid’s Knee?

Prepatellar Bursitis

85
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Which bursa inflammation is known as Nun’s Knee or Clergyman’s Knee?

Superficial Infrapatellar Bursitis

86
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What are the components of Miserable Malalignment Syndrome?

Broad pelvis, increased anteversion, increased Q-angle, genu valgum, patella alta, external tibial torsion, and subtalar pronation.

87
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What is Blount’s Disease?

Growth arrest at the medial tibial physis (media tibial shaft), also called tibia vara.

88
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Which nerve and muscle are most commonly affected in Anterior Compartment Syndrome?

DPNDPN (DeepDeep PeronealPeroneal NerveNerve) and TATA (TibialisTibialis AnteriorAnterior).

89
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What is the characteristic x-ray finding for a stress fracture?

Dreaded black line

90
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What activity causes Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome (MTSSMTSS) or 'Shin Splints'?

Toe Running (overactivity of Tibialis Posterior).

91
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What test is used to identify an Achilles tendon rupture?

Thompson Test

92
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What is Haglund’s Disease (PumpBumpPump Bump)?

A bony prominence at the posterior heel caused by shoes like pumps or boots.

93
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What is Sever’s Disease?

Calcaneal Apophysitis; inflammation of the growth plate at the insertion of the Achilles tendon on the calcaneus.

94
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What are the common symptoms of Plantar Fasciitis?

Pain with the first step in the morning and pain at the medial calcaneus.

95
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What is the position of the foot in Talipes Equinovarus (ClubfootClubfoot)?

Adduction, Inversion, and Plantarflexion (AIPAIP).

96
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What is the cause of Pes Planus (FlatfootFlat foot)?

Collapsed medial longitudinal arch (MLAMLA), often due to lax spring ligament.

97
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What is Morton’s Neuroma?

A benign tumor of the 3rd interdigital nerve, causing pain between the 3rd and 4th toes.

98
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What monofilament gauge is used to identify a loss of protective sensation in a diabetic foot?

5.075.07 gauge (exerts10gofforceexerts 10\,g of force).

99
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In the Wagner Classification of Foot Ulcers, what does Grade 3 represent?

Deep ulcer with osteomyelitis and abscess.

100
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In the Wagner Classification of Foot Ulcers, what does Grade 4 represent?

Gangrene of the partial foot.