MTLE Review - Clinical Bacteriology (Video) Flashcards

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A comprehensive set of flashcards covering key concepts in clinical bacteriology from the MTLE notes, including prokaryotic structure, growth, genetics, safety, and control methods.

Last updated 4:15 AM on 8/19/25
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66 Terms

1
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What is a prokaryotic cell characterized by having no true nucleus called?

Nucleoid; prokaryotes lack a membrane-bound nucleus and organelles.

2
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Where is energy production typically located in prokaryotic cells?

In the cytoplasmic (plasma) membrane, equivalent to mitochondria in eukaryotes.

3
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What is the typical haploid genetic state of prokaryotes?

Haploid with a single chromosome; plasmids may be present.

4
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Which organisms lack a cell wall of peptidoglycan (as noted in the notes)?

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma.

5
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What is the hallmark of bacterial cell wall composition that is the main target of many antibiotics?

Peptidoglycan (glycan chains of NAG-NAM).

6
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What are the two major toxin types produced by bacteria?

Exotoxins and endotoxins.

7
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What virulence factor enables bacteria to attach to surfaces and form biofilms?

Biofilms.

8
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Differentiate virulence from pathogenicity.

Virulence: degree of pathogenicity; pathogenicity: ability to cause disease. Virulence is often measured by infectious dose.

9
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What test identifies encapsulated organisms by causing capsule swelling?

Neufeld-Quellung test.

10
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Which capsular antigens are used in serotyping, and which organisms are commonly referenced?

Somatic O antigen (heat-stable); Vi antigen (Salmonella) and K antigen (E. coli) (heat-labile).

11
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What staining method is used to demonstrate encapsulated bacteria?

Acid-fast? No. Capsule swelling tests like Quellung. Capsule visualization often uses specific staining and background contrast.

12
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Which toxins are released by living gram-positive bacteria and do not require cell death for release?

Exotoxins; mainly protein in nature.

13
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Which toxin is part of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and is released upon bacterial cell death?

Endotoxin (LPS) from Gram-negative bacteria.

14
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Name two tetanus and botulism toxins and their organisms.

Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin) from Clostridium tetani; Botulinum toxin from Clostridium botulinum.

15
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What is the composition and characteristic of endotoxins in terms of stability and immunogenicity?

Part of LPS; heat-stable, poorly immunogenic, not easily neutralized by antitoxin; cannot be converted into toxoid.

16
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Which component is characteristic of Gram-positive cell walls and absent in Gram-negative cell walls?

Teichoic acids present in Gram-positive walls; absent from Gram-negative walls.

17
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What is the key component that gives acid-fast bacteria their acid-fast property?

Mycolic acid in the cell wall.

18
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Which organism is known for producing a poly-D-glutamic acid capsule?

Bacillus anthracis.

19
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What are L-forms in bacteria?

Organisms that temporarily lack their cell wall due to environmental conditions.

20
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Which bacteria lack a cell wall and are often used as examples in labs?

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma.

21
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What is the basic basis for Gram staining and why?

Cell wall structure; Gram-positive (thick peptidoglycan with teichoic acids) retains crystal violet; Gram-negative (thin peptidoglycan; no teichoic acid) does not.

22
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What are the two major sections of the bacterial cell wall that are commonly discussed (capsule, pili, etc.)?

Capsule, cell wall (peptidoglycan), cell membrane; pili; endospore; flagella.

23
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What test detects encapsulated organisms by inducing capsule swelling due to antigen-antibody reactions?

Capsular swelling test (Quellung reaction).

24
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What is the term for the structure that aids in adhesion and gene transfer in bacteria?

Pili (Fimbriae); includes sexual (conjugation) pili for DNA transfer.

25
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Which structural feature is the site of attachment for bacteria to host cells and the site of conjugation?

Pili/fimbriae; sex pili facilitate DNA transfer between bacteria.

26
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What stain is used to visualize endospores (Schaeffer-Fulton method)?

Schaeffer-Fulton staining method.

27
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Which bacteria genera commonly form endospores?

Bacillus and Clostridium (e.g., B. anthracis, C. tetani, C. botulinum).

28
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What are the motility classifications based on flagella arrangement?

Atrichous, Monotrichous, Amphitrichous, Lophotrichous, Peritrichous.

29
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What antigen is associated with the flagellum and serves as an important antigenic marker?

H antigen (flagellin protein).

30
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Which motility patterns are observed in bacteria?

Tumbling, Gliding, Twitching, Darting, Corkscrew, Shooting star motility.

31
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Name a method used to demonstrate bacterial motility aside from observing growth patterns.

Flagellar stain with tannic acid; hanging drop; semi-solid media.

32
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What are metachromatic (volutin) granules and give examples of bacteria that form them?

Inclusions/granules used for energy storage (polyphosphates); examples: Corynebacterium, M. tuberculosis (among others).

33
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Where is bacterial DNA primarily located and is it surrounded by a nuclear membrane?

Nucleoid region; not enclosed by a nuclear membrane.

34
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What is the bacterial ribosome type and its subunit composition?

70S ribosome; 50S and 30S subunits.

35
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What is the general fluid interior of the bacterial cell called that contains no organelles?

Cytosol.

36
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Differentiate autotrophs and heterotrophs in terms of carbon source.

Autotrophs use inorganic carbon (CO2); heterotrophs use organic carbon.

37
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What is the difference between phototrophs and chemotrophs?

Phototrophs use light as an energy source; chemotrophs obtain energy from chemical compounds.

38
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What are the main categories of temperature-based bacterial groups?

Psychrophilic (10-20°C), Mesophilic (20-40°C), Thermophilic (50-125°C).

39
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What is capnophilic growth?

Organisms that require elevated CO2 for growth.

40
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Which growth temperature ranges are typical for lab incubation of aerobes and anaerobes?

Aerobes: 35-37°C; Anaerobes: 35-37°C; fungi: 28-30°C; many bacteria incubated 24-48h.

41
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What is a neutrophilic bacterium?

Organisms that require neutral pH for growth (around pH 7).

42
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What is acidophilic growth?

Organisms requiring acidic pH for growth (low pH).

43
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What is halophilic growth?

Organisms requiring high salt concentrations to grow.

44
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Which medium and test are used to assess salt tolerance in Enterococci?

Salt tolerance test; growth on Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) for Staphylococcus; Enterococci show growth.

45
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What is the candle jar method used for in culture?

Creating a microaerophilic atmosphere with reduced oxygen and increased CO2; approximately 5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2.

46
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What is the purpose of moisture in culture and what humidity level is mentioned?

Prevent drying; approximately 70% moisture for survival of organisms.

47
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What are the major phases of bacterial growth and their characteristics?

Lag phase (no division, adaptation); Log/exponential phase (rapid growth); Stationary phase (growth equals death); Death phase (death exceeds growth).

48
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What is conjugation in bacterial genetics?

DNA transfer between bacteria via the sex pilus forming a conjugative bridge.

49
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What is transduction in bacterial genetics?

DNA transfer mediated by bacteriophages (phages) infecting bacteria.

50
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What is transformation in bacterial genetics?

Uptake of free DNA by a competent recipient cell from the environment.

51
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What are the risk levels described for individual and community risk in biosafety context?

No/low risk; Moderate individual risk; Low community risk; High individual risk; High community risk (risk matrix shown in notes).

52
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What are the four basic biosafety levels and their general protections?

BSL-1: standard practices; BSL-2: PPE; BSL-3: negative pressure, specialized PPE; BSL-4: full-body suit with independent ventilation.

53
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What are the three main classes of Biological Safety Cabinets (BSC) and their protections?

Class I: protects personnel; Class II: protects personnel and work surface; Class III: full enclosure with gloves, protects personnel and environment.

54
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What agents fall under Category A of bioterrorism agents and give examples?

Great public health threat; examples include Bacillus anthracis, Francisella tularensis, variola (smallpox), Ebola, etc.

55
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What agents fall under Category B and Category C in bioterrorism risk?

Category B: moderate morbidity and low mortality (easily transmitted); Category C: emerging pathogens with potential for mass dissemination.

56
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What is sterilization and how does it differ from disinfection?

Sterilization: complete destruction/removal of all forms of microbial life including spores; Disinfection: destruction/removal of pathogens but not necessarily all microorganisms or spores.

57
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Name physical methods of sterilization.

Moist heat (autoclaving), dry heat, filtration, exposure to ionizing radiation.

58
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Name chemical methods of sterilization.

Ethylene oxide; formaldehyde vapor; hydrogen peroxide vapor; glutaraldehyde; peracetic acid.

59
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Name chemical methods of disinfection.

Alcohols, iodophors, chlorhexidine, hexachlorophene, phenolics, quaternary ammonium compounds (quats), heavy metals, halogens, 10% hydrogen peroxide; aldehydes.

60
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What does pasteurization accomplish?

Destruction of certain pathogens and reducing microbial load, without sterilization; used for foods and drinks.

61
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Which two components are essential for the lance of the protective functions of capsules?

Capsule prevents phagocytosis; capsule swelling detectable by serotyping and Quellung reaction.

62
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Which organism’s capsule swelling is used as indication of encapsulation by serotyping?

Klebsiella (through Quellung reaction).

63
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What is the role of teichoic acid in Gram-positive bacteria?

Teichoic acids are present in Gram-positive cell walls and contribute to filamentous structure and antigenicity; absent in Gram-negative walls.

64
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Which organism features a spirochete with axial filaments enabling motility?

Spirochetes use axial filaments (periplasmic flagella) for motility.

65
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What is the function of the bacterial endospore and which organism groups form them?

Survival in harsh conditions; formed by Bacillus and Clostridium species.

66
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What is the main function of the bacterial ribosome and its size class?

Protein synthesis; 70S ribosome (composed of 50S and 30S subunits).

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