COPT-R STAGE 3 REVIEW

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Last updated 2:47 PM on 4/18/26
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42 Terms

1
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The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle between the

Chord line and the resultant relative wind

2
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Ground resonance is most likely to develop when

A series of shocks causes the rotor system to become unbalanced

3
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When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown

4
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What is one of the hazards of a semi-rigid rotor system?

It is underslung and susceptible to mast bumping in low g conditions

5
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Which component allows the helicopter to autorotate by allowing the rotor system to continue turning without engine power?

Freewheeling unit

6
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What is ground effect?

The increased efficiency of the rotor disk when hovering within one rotor disk diameter of the ground; caused by a reduction in induced flow velocity

7
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The primary purpose of the tail rotor system is to

Counteract torque effect of main rotor

8
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How long is the time-limited operation when the torque is between 83% and 100%?

5 minutes

9
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What action should you take in the event of a FUEL FILTER caution?

If no other indication of a problem exists, land as soon as practical. If light is accompanied by erratic engine operation, land immediately.

10
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Which component drives the hydraulic pump?

Main rotor gearbox

11
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True or False: The engine-driven fuel pump is driven by the N1 section.

True

12
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True or False: The N2 section is responsible for the self-sustainment of the engine. 

False

13
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<p><span>Where does the Class E airspace begin surrounding the immediate vicinity of Franklin County (F53)?</span></p>

Where does the Class E airspace begin surrounding the immediate vicinity of Franklin County (F53)?

700 feet AGL

14
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At what altitude does the VFR cruising altitude rule begin to apply?

3,000 feet AG

15
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<p><span>If you wish to transition through R-6302A, what action must you take first?</span></p>

If you wish to transition through R-6302A, what action must you take first?

Call either the using agency or controlling agency and obtain authorization

16
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What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

An area established to separate military traffic from IFR traffic

17
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When flying to a Class C airport (assuming no flight-following services are already being provided), which ATC facility should be contacted first with position and intentions?

Approach Control (20-nautical mile procedure area)

18
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After making the initial call when returning to KFTW, Meacham Tower says "Sage 65, standby." Can you proceed inbound and enter the Class D airspace?

Yes. Two-way communication has been established since the controller stated the aircraft callsign

19
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When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? 

Always

20
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If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

Steady red signal

21
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If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

An aircraft should observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower, when landing at a controlled airport.

22
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After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should a helicopter pilot contact ground control?

When advised to do so by the controller

23
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ADS-B Out equipment broadcasts

The aircraft's state vector (3D position and velocity) as well as additional required information

24
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Why should you file a VFR flight plan with the FAA?

Filing a flight plan is not required by regulations; however it is a good operating practice since the information contained in the flight plan can be used in search and rescue and the event of an emergency

25
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For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the what?

Lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration (BKN, OVC, VV)

26
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The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and

unstable, moist air

27
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SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?

All aircraft

28
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<p>Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?</p>

Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?

KINK, KBOI, KLAX

29
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AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to

All pilots

30
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The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to

Friction between the wind and the surface

31
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The LOW FUEL caution light illuminates when approximately how much fuel remains?

5 gallons; approximately 10 minutes at cruise power

32
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If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code

1200

33
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If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

Wind-shear turbulence

34
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Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft:

Straight and level flight, turns, climbs, and descents

35
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When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

Only during the first 5 minutes after any hour and only for three audible sweeps

36
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In the procedure for engine fire during start or shutdown, why is the guidance to wait until MGT drops below 150 C to turn the battery off?

In order for the starter to run/motor the engine (continue to provide cooling air), the battery must be on.

37
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How is translating tendency compensated for in the TH-66?

Pilot input

38
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What are the parameters for minimum rate of descent in an autorotation in the TH-66?

Airspeed: 60 KIAS

Rotor RPM: 90%

39
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What is the power-off rotor RPM range?

88-106%

40
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Explain the significance of the flare in the autorotation

The flare reduces groundspeed, arrests the descent rate, and builds rotor RPM

41
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What clouds have the greatest amount of turbulence?

Cumulonimbus

42
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In a fully developed vortex ring state, what descent rate can occur?

6,000 feet per minute