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Last updated 5:57 AM on 4/13/26
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557 Terms

1
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Lecture 1

2
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What type of cell requires a host cell for reproduction? Viruses

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How are viruses primarily classified? Genetic material and morphology

4
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Protozoa are typically single-celled eukaryotes. (statement)

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Which tract is commonly infected by protozoa? GI Tract

6
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Fungi are characterized as non-photosynthetic eukaryotes (statement)

7
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A single-celled fungal form is known as what? Yeast

8
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Which categories are used to divide infectious bacteria? Gram Positives, Gram Negatives, Anaerobes, Atypicals, Cocci Vs Bacilli, Spore-Formers, Motile Vs Non-Motile

9
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Which genus of Gram-positive cocci is coagulase positive? Staphylococcus sp.

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Which genus of Gram-positive cocci is coagulase negative? Streptococcus sp.

11
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Gram-negative bacteria are often classified by morphology as bacilli. (statement)

12
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Which of the following are listed as common Gram-Negative bacteria? E. coli, Klebsiella sp., Neisseria sp., Streptococcus sp, Mycoplasma sp, Chlamydia sp

13
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What is the goal of treatment for viral infections? Preventing cell entry/replication

14
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Which genus of Gram-positive cocci is typically found in chains or pairs? Streptococcus sp.

15
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Which genus of Gram-positive cocci is typically found in clusters? Staphylococcus sp.

16
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Which of the following are classified as less common Gram-negative bacteria? H. pylori, Vibrio, Campylobacter sp., Salmonella sp., E. coli, Klebsiella sp

17
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What term describes a microorganism capable of causing disease? Pathogen

18
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What property allows a microorganism to replicate and cause disease in a host? Virulence Factors

19
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Which virulence factor is produced by the microorganism to affect cells at a distance? Exotoxins

20
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What type of toxin is part of the microbe itself that produces host effects? Endotoxins

21
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Antimicrobial therapy definition focused on treating an active infection is definitive therapy. (statement)

22
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What concept relates to the lowest concentration inhibiting visible growth? MIC

23
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What therapy definition is used before the pathogen is identified? Empiric

24
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What therapy definition is used to prevent potential infection? Prophylactic

25
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Activity described as time-dependent relates to which antimicrobial characteristic? Total exposure activity

26
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Antimicrobials are classified as either bacteriostatic or bactericidal. True

27
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What is the goal of treatment for viral infections? Preventing cell entry/replication

28
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Which genus of Gram-positive cocci is typically found in chains or pairs? Streptococcus sp.

29
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Which genus of Gram-positive cocci is typically found in clusters? Staphylococcus sp.

30
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Which of the following are classified as less common Gram-negative bacteria? H. pylori, Vibrio, Campylobacter sp., Salmonella sp., E. coli, Klebsiella sp

31
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Most infectious Gram-negative bacteria are classified as bacilli. True

32
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What is the primary function of B-lactams regarding the bacterial cell? Cell wall synthesis inhibition

33
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Which are characteristics of anaerobic bacteria? Spore-formers, Toxin producers, Abscess formation, Require high oxygen, Always Gram-positive

34
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What type of toxin is part of the microbe itself that produces host effects? Endotoxins

35
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Antimicrobial therapy definition focused on treating an active infection is definitive therapy. (statement)

36
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What concept relates to the lowest concentration inhibiting visible growth? MIC

37
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Antimicrobials are classified as either bacteriostatic or bactericidal. True

38
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What therapy definition is used before the pathogen is identified? Empiric

39
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What therapy definition is used to prevent potential infection? Prophylactic

40
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Activity described as time-dependent relates to which antimicrobial characteristic? Total exposure activity

41
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Which of the following are classified as common Gram-negative bacteria? Enterobacter sp., Pseudomonas sp., H. influenzae, Moraxella sp.

42
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Which of the following are classified as less common Gram-negative bacteria? H. pylori, Vibrio, Campylobacter sp., Salmonella sp.

43
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Most infectious Gram-negative bacteria are classified as bacilli. True

44
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What is the primary function of B-lactams regarding the bacterial cell? Cell wall synthesis inhibition

45
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Which are characteristics of anaerobic bacteria? Spore-formers, Toxin producers, Abscess formation

46
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Which atypical bacteria are mentioned in the material besides Mycoplasma, Rickettsia, and Legionella? Chlamydia sp.

47
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What are the primary goals of virulence factors? Bypass innate barriers, Defend against immune system, Outcompete normal flora

48
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What is the term for preventing population resistance patterns? Antimicrobial stewardship

49
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What is the process of obtaining a sample to determine bacterial presence? Culture

50
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What report identifies an organism and its sensitivity to antimicrobials? Culture and Sensitivity Report

51
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What is a site-specific report identifying susceptibility patterns for common organisms? Antibiogram

52
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Which are characteristics of anaerobic bacteria? Spore-formers, Toxin producers, Abscess formation, Require high oxygen, Always Gram-positive

53
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Which factors help identify the 'source' of an infection? Signs and symptoms, Lab values, Physical exam

54
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What is the process of obtaining a sample to determine bacterial presence? Culture

55
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What report identifies an organism and its sensitivity to antimicrobials? Culture and Sensitivity Report

56
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What is a site-specific report identifying susceptibility patterns for common organisms? Antibiogram

57
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Positive cultures from sterile sites like blood or urine always indicate infection. True

58
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Which susceptibility method is commonly automated in microbiology labs? Broth micro-dilution

59
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Which susceptibility method is described as uncommon in clinical practice? Disk diffusion

60
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Match the susceptibility result to its abbreviation: Sensitive S, Intermediate I, Resistant R

61
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What is the term for narrowing therapy once culture results are finalized? De-escalation

62
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What is the process of obtaining a sample to determine bacterial presence? Culture

63
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What report identifies an organism and its sensitivity to antimicrobials? Culture and Sensitivity Report

64
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What is a site-specific report identifying susceptibility patterns for common organisms? Antibiogram

65
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Which organization determines the defined 'breakpoints' for susceptibility in the US? CLSI

66
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Which factors help identify the 'source' of an infection? Signs and symptoms, Lab values, Physical exam, Patient's shoe size, Insurance provider

67
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Positive cultures from sterile sites like blood or urine always indicate infection. True

68
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Which susceptibility method is commonly automated in microbiology labs? Broth micro-dilution

69
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What is the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that kills >99.9% of bacteria? MBC

70
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You can compare MICs of two different antibiotics to determine which is 'more' effective. False

71
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Match the susceptibility result to its abbreviation: Sensitive S, Intermediate I, Resistant R

72
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What is the term for narrowing therapy once culture results are finalized? De-escalation

73
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Order the timeline of antibiotic therapy: Signs & Symptoms, Collect Cultures, Empiric Therapy, Sensitivity Results, Adjust antibiotic

74
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What is the primary mechanism of action for most bacteriostatic agents? Protein synthesis inhibition

75
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Which of the following are common bacteriostatic agents? Macrolides, Tetracyclines, Linezolid, Clindamycin

76
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what is the combination drug listed as a bacteriostatic agent? Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

77
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Which of the following are common bactericidal agents? Beta-lactams, Fluoroquinolones, Glycopeptides, Aminoglycosides

78
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Match the efficacy parameter to its description: Time > MIC Time-dependent, Cmax / MIC Concentration-dependent, AUC / MIC Total exposure

79
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Which drug class exhibits time-dependent bactericidal activity? Beta-lactams

80
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Which drug classes exhibit concentration-dependent activity? Fluoroquinolones, Aminoglycosides

81
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Which specific drug is listed as having total exposure activity? Vancomycin

82
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What is the term for continued suppression of growth after levels fall below MIC? Post Antibiotic Effect

83
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Which drug class is specifically noted for exhibiting a Post Antibiotic Effect (PAE)? Aminoglycosides

84
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Which patient-specific factors should be considered when choosing an antimicrobial? Allergies, Organ function, Other medications

85
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Match the PK parameter to its definition: Absorption Entry into bloodstream, Distribution Movement through body, Elimination Removal from body

86
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What does the abbreviation CLSI stand for? Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute

87
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Bacteriostatic agents kill present bacteria. False

88
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What is the term for the ratio of the peak concentration to the MIC? Cmax/MIC

89
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What is the term for the ratio of the area under the curve to the MIC? AUC/MIC

90
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All fungi are pathogenic to humans. False

91
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Which fungal form is single-celled? Yeast

92
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What is the primary classification of bacteria based on the Gram stain? Prokaryotic cells

93
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Which morphological features are used to further divide bacteria? Cocci vs bacilli, Chains vs clusters, Flagella presence

94
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95
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Lecture 2

96
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What is the structural component responsible for the efficacy of β-lactams? β-lactam ring

97
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Which enzyme does the β-lactam ring inhibit by binding to it? Transpeptidase (PBP)

98
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The mechanism of action for penicillins results in cell death, which is described as Bactericidal

99
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What is the primary target of penicillin's mechanism of action in cell wall synthesis? Peptidoglycan layer synthesis

100
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Which penicillin subgroup includes ampicillin and amoxicillin? Aminopenicillins