Fungi and Urine

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Last updated 7:40 AM on 6/5/26
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52 Terms

1
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What are the main categories of fungi?

"Yeast, yeast-like fungi, and moulds."

2
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What is a fungus?

"A non-motile eukaryotic organism with definite cell walls, lacking chlorophyll, reproducing sexually and/or asexually."

3
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What is the most frequently isolated fungus in clinical microbiology?

Yeasts.

4
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What is the difference between yeast and yeast-like fungi?

Yeasts reproduce sexually and asexually; yeast-like fungi reproduce asexually (blastoconidia only).

5
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What is the asexual reproductive structure produced by budding yeasts?

Blastoconidia.

6
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What are pseudohyphae?

Elongated budding yeast cells that remain attached after incomplete separation.

7
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Which dimorphic fungi have a yeast phase in vivo?

Blastomyces dermatitidis and Histoplasma capsulatum.

8
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What specimens commonly yield yeasts?

"Respiratory, tissue, vaginal, urine, blood, CSF, skin/nails, bone, and corneal specimens."

9
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Why should direct fungal examination be performed?

To support diagnosis and provide early clues to fungal identity.

10
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Do most yeast cultures require special handling precautions?

"No, except respiratory specimens should be handled carefully due to possible dimorphic pathogens."

11
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Typical appearance of yeast colonies?

"White/cream, pasty, dry, bacteria-like colonies."

12
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What test rapidly identifies Candida albicans and Candida dubliniensis?

Germ tube test.

13
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How long should the germ tube test be incubated?

2-3 hours at 37C (maximum 3 hours).

14
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What media are commonly used for yeast workup?

"Colorex Candida Plus, Mycobiotic agar, and Inhibitory Mold Agar (IMA)."

15
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What technology is now commonly used for rapid yeast identification?

MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry.

16
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What score is generally acceptable for MALDI-TOF yeast identification?

‚>2.00.

17
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What molecular methods can identify clinically significant yeasts?

PCR amplification and sequencing of 26S rRNA and ITS regions.

18
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What are the key features of Candida albicans?

"Germ tube positive, green-blue Chromagar colonies, chlamydospores, cycloheximide resistant."

19
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What differentiates Candida dubliniensis from C. albicans?

Clustered chlamydospores and dark green Chromagar colonies.

20
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What are the key features of Candida glabrata?

"Germ tube negative, mauve colonies, no pseudohyphae or chlamydospores."

21
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What are the key features of Candida tropicalis?

Metallic blue colonies and vigorous pseudohyphal growth.

22
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Which Cryptococcus species commonly infects healthy individuals?

Cryptococcus gattii.

23
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What confirmatory tests are positive for Cryptococcus?

Urease positive and caffeic acid positive.

24
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How are Cryptococcus neoformans and C. gattii differentiated?

"CGB agar: C. gattii positive, C. neoformans negative."

25
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Why is Candida auris clinically important?

"Multidrug-resistant, healthcare-associated spread, high mortality, and reportable."

26
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What antifungal susceptibility test is commonly used for yeasts?

Sensititre YeastOne.

27
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What percentage of hospital-acquired infections are UTIs?

Approximately 30-40%.

28
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What is the most common route of UTI infection?

Ascending infection.

29
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Why are UTIs more common in women?

Shorter urethra and proximity to the anus.

30
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What are symptoms of pyelonephritis?

"Dysuria, flank pain, CVA tenderness, fever, chills, malaise."

31
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What are symptoms of cystitis?

"Dysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain."

32
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What are examples of complicated UTI risk factors?

"Pregnancy, catheters, diabetes, urologic abnormalities, immunosuppression."

33
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Name major host defenses against UTIs.

"Urine flow, low pH, urea, epithelial shedding, immunity."

34
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What virulence factor helps bacteria adhere in the urinary tract?

Fimbriae.

35
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Which organism is the most common cause of UTI?

Escherichia coli.

36
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Which organism commonly causes UTIs in young women and is nitrite negative?

Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

37
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How should a clean-catch urine specimen be collected?

"Clean genital area, discard initial stream, collect midstream urine."

38
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How quickly should urine be processed?

Within 2 hours or refrigerated at 4C.

39
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What preservative may be used for urine transport?

Boric acid/sodium borate-formate.

40
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Name two unacceptable urine culture specimens.

Urine collection bag specimens and Foley catheter tips.

41
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What urinalysis marker indicates pyuria?

Leukocyte esterase.

42
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Which urine test detects nitrate-reducing gram-negative bacteria?

Nitrite test.

43
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What media are routinely used for urine cultures?

"Blood agar, MacConkey agar, and Orientation agar."

44
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"Using a 0.001 mL loop

one colony represents how many CFU/mL?","1,000 CFU/mL."

45
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What colony count traditionally indicates significant bacteriuria?

"‚100,000 CFU/mL (10^5 CFU/mL)."

46
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How are cultures with ≥3 potential uropathogens usually reported?

Mixed flora.

47
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Name common normal urogenital flora.

"Lactobacillus, viridans streptococci, Corynebacterium, Micrococcus, Gardnerella."

48
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Which uncommon gram-positive UTI pathogen resembles viridans streptococci?

Aerococcus urinae.

49
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Which urease-positive diphtheroid can cause UTIs?

Corynebacterium urealyticum.

50
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Which antibiotics are considered urine-specific agents?

Nitrofurantoin and fosfomycin.

51
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What resistant Enterobacterales mechanism commonly affects cephalosporin therapy?

ESBL production.

52
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What does VRE stand for?

Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus.