3. Secondary messengers 1

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Last updated 8:54 AM on 4/30/26
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80 Terms

1
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What is the primary function of a phosphorylation cascade in signal transduction?

It allows for signal amplification and propagation through sequential kinase activation.

2
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Which type of protein kinase is most common in intracellular signalling?

Serine/Threonine kinases.

3
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What molecule is bound to a G protein when it is in its active state?

GTP (Guanosine triphosphate).

4
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How is the signal switched off in GTP-binding protein pathways?

The protein's intrinsic GTPase activity hydrolyses bound GTP into GDP.

5
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In the adrenaline signalling cascade, what is the direct effect of activating the G_{s} protein?

It activates the enzyme adenylate cyclase.

6
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What is the relationship between the \alpha-subunit and the \beta\gamma-complex in an inactive G protein?

They are bound together as an inactive heterotrimer with GDP attached to the \alpha-subunit.

7
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What is the function of a Guanine nucleotide Exchange Factor (GEF) in G protein signalling?

It facilitates the exchange of GDP for GTP to activate the G protein.

8
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Which second messenger system is activated by G_{s}-coupled receptors?

The adenylate cyclase system, which increases cyclic AMP (cAMP).

9
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Which enzyme is activated by G_{q} proteins to generate IP_{3} and DAG?

Phospholipase C (PLC).

10
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What are the two downstream effects of Phospholipase C activation?

Release of Ca^{2+} from internal stores and activation of Protein Kinase C (PKC).

11
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How do G_{i} proteins affect cellular cAMP levels?

They inhibit adenylate cyclase, leading to a decrease in cAMP levels.

12
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What is the specific molecular mechanism by which Cholera toxin causes permanent activation of G_{s}?

It ADP-ribosylates an arginine residue on the \alpha-subunit, abolishing its GTPase activity.

13
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What is the clinical consequence of the permanent cAMP increase caused by Cholera toxin in the intestine?

Phosphorylation of Cl^{-} channels leading to an efflux of water and electrolytes (diarrhoea).

14
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How does Pertussis toxin interfere with G_{i} protein signalling?

It ADP-ribosylates G_{i} at a cysteine residue, preventing its interaction with the receptor.

15
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What is the initial step in the activation of the JAK-STAT signalling pathway?

Ligand-induced receptor dimerization.

16
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Why is the JAK-STAT pathway considered distinct from Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs)?

The receptors lack intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity and must associate with Janus kinases (JAKs).

17
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What specific domain do downstream transducers like Grb2 use to recruit to phosphorylated tyrosine residues?

SH2 domains.

18
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What is the role of MEK in the MAPK pathway?

It is a dual-specificity kinase that phosphorylates both serine/threonine and tyrosine residues.

19
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Which small G-protein is responsible for regulating the MAPK/ERK pathway?

Ras.

20
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What is the primary cellular role of Rab proteins?

They are involved in the regulation of vesicular transport.

21
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Which enzyme converts ATP into cyclic AMP?

Adenylate cyclase.

22
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How does soluble adenylate cyclase differ from transmembrane isoforms regarding regulation?

It is not regulated by G proteins but is activated by calcium ions and bicarbonate.

23
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What are the two main types of G proteins that regulate adenylate cyclase activity?

Gs proteins (stimulatory) and Gi proteins (inhibitory).

24
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What occurs when cAMP binds to the regulatory subunits of Protein Kinase A (PKA)?

The catalytic subunits are released and become active.

25
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Which nuclear protein is the main substrate for PKA-mediated transcriptional regulation?

CREB (cAMP response element binding protein).

26
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What is the direct metabolic outcome of CREB activation by PKA?

Expression of genes for catabolic pathways like glycolysis and lipolysis.

27
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Which enzyme catalyses the synthesis of Nitric Oxide from L-arginine?

Nitric oxide synthase (NOS).

28
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Which NOS isoform is constitutive and located in neurons?

nNOS (or NOS I).

29
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What is the intracellular target of Nitric Oxide once it diffuses into smooth muscle cells?

Soluble guanylate cyclase (sGC).

30
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What second messenger is produced by the activation of soluble guanylate cyclase?

cGMP (cyclic guanosine monophosphate).

31
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How does shear stress from blood flow activate eNOS?

It activates G proteins leading to AC/cAMP signaling and eNOS phosphorylation.

32
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Which reactive species is formed when NO reacts with a superoxide anion?

Peroxynitrite (ONOO-).

33
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What is S-nitrosylation in the context of protein regulation?

The covalent modification of cysteine thiol groups by NO to form S-nitrosothiols.

34
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Which system is responsible for the enzymatic reversal of protein S-nitrosylation?

The thioredoxin/thioredoxin reductase system (Trx/TR).

35
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How does Sildenafil (Viagra) prolong smooth muscle relaxation?

It inhibits phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5), preventing the breakdown of cGMP.

36
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Which NOS isoform is expressed in macrophages as part of the immune response?

iNOS (inducible Nitric Oxide Synthase).

37
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What transcription factor is released by IKK to induce iNOS gene expression?

NF-kB.

38
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Which cytokine pathway involving JAK-STAT stimulates the expression of iNOS?

The IFN-gamma pathway.

39
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What is the role of the Cationic amino acid transporter (CAT) in NO synthesis?

It delivers arginine to caveolae where eNOS is located.

40
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Which intermediate metabolite of adrenaline metabolism is used as a clinical marker for pheochromocytoma?

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA).

41
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What is the typical concentration of free cytosolic Ca^{2+} in a resting cell?

Approximately 0.1 \mu mol/L.

42
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Which Ca^{2+} pump is responsible for transporting calcium from the cytosol into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum?

SERCA (Sarco/Endoplasmic Reticulum Ca^{2+}-ATPase).

43
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What is the stoichiometry of the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger (NCX) in the plasma membrane?

It moves 3 Na^{+} into the cell for every 1 Ca^{2+} extruded.

44
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Which Ca^{2+}-binding protein acts as a buffer specifically within the endoplasmic reticulum?

Calreticulin.

45
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What is the structural homologue of Calmodulin in skeletal muscle?

Troponin C.

46
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How does the Ca^{2+}/Calmodulin complex regulate smooth muscle contraction?

It modulates the activity of the actin-myosin complex.

47
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What defines 'paracrine' signalling?

A cell secretes a molecule that acts locally on neighbouring target cells.

48
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Which natriuretic peptide receptor lacks intrinsic guanylyl cyclase activity and acts as a clearance receptor?

NPR-C.

49
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What is the role of Protein Kinase G (PKG) in the regulation of Ca^{2+} in the heart?

It phosphorylates phospholamban (PLN) to regulate the SERCA pump.

50
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Which G protein pathway activated by the Calcium-Sensing Receptor (CaSR) leads to changes in the cytoskeleton via RhoA?

The G_{12/13} pathway.

51
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What clinical condition is specifically associated with the secretion of Parathyroid Hormone-related Protein (PTHrP) by tumours?

Hypercalcaemia.

52
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What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the synthesis of catecholamines from tyrosine?

Tyrosine hydroxylase (TH).

53
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Which enzyme converts dopamine into norepinephrine inside synaptic vesicles?

Dopamine \beta-hydroxylase (DBH).

54
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In which tissue is norepinephrine primarily converted to epinephrine by PNMT?

The adrenal medulla.

55
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What is the primary intracellular location of the degradation enzyme monoamine oxidase (MAO)?

The mitochondria.

56
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Which adrenergic receptor subtype is coupled to G_{i} and inhibits cAMP production?

\alpha_{2}-adrenergic receptors.

57
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What is the hierarchy of agonist sensitivity for \beta-adrenergic receptors?

Isoproterenol > epinephrine > norepinephrine.

58
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How does adrenaline inhibit insulin secretion?

By acting through \alpha-adrenergic receptors in the pancreas.

59
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What is the effect of adrenaline on glycogen metabolism in the liver?

It activates glycogen phosphorylase (glycogenolysis) and inhibits glycogen synthase (glycogenesis).

60
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Which intracellular receptor acts as a master regulator of xenobiotic detoxification in the liver?

Pregnane X Receptor (PXR).

61
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What DNA-binding partner is required for PXR to activate its target genes?

RXR (Retinoid X Receptor).

62
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Which metabolic product of mutated IDH enzymes acts as an 'oncometabolite' by altering the epigenome?

D-2-hydroxyglutarate (D-2HG).

63
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How does D-2HG interfere with epigenetic regulation?

It competitively inhibits \alpha-ketoglutarate-dependent dioxygenases like TET enzymes.

64
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What is the function of TET (Ten-Eleven Translocation) enzymes in the cell?

They are involved in DNA demethylation.

65
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What general reaction occurs during Phase I of procarcinogen biotransformation?

Hydroxylation, primarily catalysed by cytochrome P450 monooxygenases.

66
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What is the chemical goal of Phase II biotransformation (conjugation)?

To increase the polarity of a substance to facilitate its excretion in urine.

67
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In chemical carcinogenesis, what is the fundamental difference between an initiator and a promoter?

Initiators cause direct, irreversible DNA mutations, while promoters stimulate proliferation of mutated cells without being mutagens.

68
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Which enzyme converts Tyrosine to DOPA during melanin synthesis in the skin?

Tyrosine hydroxylase (regulated by MSH).

69
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Which small GTPase is involved in nuclear transport processes?

Ran.

70
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What is the relationship between cAMP and the phosphorylation of Cl^{-} channels in the context of Cholera?

cAMP activates PKA, which then phosphorylates the channels to trigger electrolyte efflux.

71
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Which lipid mediator is known to induce Ca^{2+} release from the endoplasmic reticulum?

Inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP_{3}).

72
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Which enzyme breaks down cGMP into 5'-GMP to terminate the signal?

Phosphodiesterase (PDE).

73
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How does Nitric Oxide affect platelet function?

It inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion.

74
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Which NOS isoform is 'inducible' and does not depend on high Ca^{2+} levels for its activity?

iNOS (NOS II).

75
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What is the stoichiometry of Na^{+} to Ca^{2+} in the NCX exchanger?

3 Na^{+} ions are exchanged for 1 Ca^{2+} ion.

76
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Which natriuretic peptide is primarily known as 'C-type'?

CNP.

77
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Which catecholamine is synthesized from norepinephrine via the enzyme PNMT?

Epinephrine (Adrenaline).

78
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Which G protein subunit possesses the intrinsic GTPase activity?

The \alpha-subunit (G\alpha).

79
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What is the role of IRF-1 in immune signalling?

It is a transcription factor that stimulates the expression of iNOS.

80
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Which phase II conjugation molecule is commonly used to detoxify carcinogens?

Glucuronic acid (or glutathione/acetate).