Hussein

based on the modified study guide

h pylori increases the risk for: ___________ and _________

ulcers and carcinogenesis

what virulence factors does h pylori have?

VacA: suppresses T cell response, causes cell death of the gastric epithelium

CagA: disrupts tight junctions between cells, TSS4

list the tests used for h pylori

urea breath test

stool antigen

confirmation tests: urease, catalase, oxidase

________ in animal placentas stimulates growth of brucellosis

erythritol

brucellosis has different species that can be transmitted to humans from different animals

B. abortus comes from ____

B. melitensis comes from ____

B. suis comes from ____

B. abortus comes from cattle (cow)

B. melitensis comes from sheep/goats

B. suis comes from pigs (sow)

francisella tularensis is _______, meaning it spreads from vertebrate animals to humans

zoonotic

how is francisella tularensis acquired?

rabbit

tick

ingestion of contaminated meat

aerosols

what are the characteristics of francisella tularensis?

splenomegaly

hepatomegaly

__________ is highly infectious, so the lab needs to be alerted when it is suspected

francisella tularensis

rickettsia prowazekki is spread by ________

lice/louse

how do bacteria develop vancomycin resistance?

list the bacteria that are resistant

terminal D-alanine changed to D-lactate

horizontal gene transfer/spread via transposons and plasmids

E. faecalis and S. aureus

bartonella quintana is transmitted by _______ and causes _______

transmitted by louse feces and causes trench fever

bartonella bacilliformis is transmitted by ________ and causes ________

transmitted by South American sandfly and causes oroya fever (severe anemia) and peruvian fever/warts

_________ is also known as cat scratch fever

bartonella henselae

bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by 2 different bartonella species: _____ and ______. it is treated with ________

species: b henselae and b quintana

treated with erythromycin

list examples of beta-lactam antibiotics. they are most effective in what phase of the bacterial growth curve?

penicillins, cephalosporins

most effective in LOG phase

augmentin is ________ + _________. which part is a suicide inhibitor of beta-lactamase?

amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

clavulanic acid is a suicide inhibitor of beta-lactamase

______ restrict entry of certain molecules by size or charge

E. coli O157:H7 has smaller ones, making them more resistant to beta lactams

porins

what is the MOA of rifampin? what is the MOR?

MOA: RNA pol inhibitor, stops transcription

MOR: target RNA pol becomes insensitive, so the drug doesn’t bind the RNA pol anymore

what is the MOA of quinolones? what is the MOR?

MOA: inhibits DNA gyrase, unable to pack DNA into cell

MOR: mutation of gyrase genes, alteration of membrane permeability to quinolones, efflux, mobile elements with qnr genes

what is the MOA of tetracycline? what is the MOR?

MOA: blocks binding of aminoacyl tRNAs to the mRNA translation complex by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit; inhibits protein synthesis

MOR: efflux pump

what is the MOA of aminoglycosides? what is the MOR?

MOA: inhibits protein synthesis, blocks binding of fmet-tRNA to ribosome

MOR: drug modified by bacteria and inactivated, transport inhibition

what is the MOA of chloramphenicol? what is the MOR?

MOA: binds to 50S subunit, inhibits peptide bond formation, protein synthesis inhibited

MOR: plasmid mediated, CAT inactivates CAN because acetylated chloramphenicol cannot bind 50S subunit

what is the MOA of macrolides and lincosamides? what is the MOR?

MOA: inhibit peptide chain elongation

MOR: plasmid mediated, methylation of ribosome (ribosome—CH3)

what is the MOA of sulfonamides? what is the MOR?

MOA: compete with PABA as substrate, inhibit dihydropteroate synthase

MOR: PABA overproduction, making insensitive enzyme, making more enzyme

what is the MOA of trimethoprim? what is the MOR?

MOA: competitive inhibitor of DHFR

MOR: PABA overproduction, making insensitive enzyme, making more enzyme

what is the vector for rickettsial rickettsii? what disease does it cause?

vector: tick

disease: RMSF; rash on palms

what is the vector for rickettsial prowazekii? what disease does it cause?

vector: lice

disease: epidemic typhus

what is the vector for R. (orientia) tsutsugamushi? what disease does it cause?

vector: mite

disease: scrub typhus

what is the vector for coxiella burnetii? what disease does it cause?

vector: NONE!

(but you can get it from milk products)

disease: Q fever

______ is the leading cause of preventable blindness

chlamydia trachomatis

what are the signs/symptoms of LGV (a type of chlamydia)?

transient genital lesions/vesicles

buboes: inguinal lymphadenopathy

groove sign: inguinal ligament cleaves the swelling

how are n. gonorrhoeae and chlamydia associated? how are they different?

(there wasn’t really anything about this in his powerpoint…but this is what chat had to say)

similar transmission routes and symptoms —> both STIs

different antibiotic susceptibility

different bacterial structures and resistance

what are treatment options for c. trachoma?

eye infection and LGV

tetracycline, azithromycin, erythromycin

drain buboes

_____ skin test is done for tuberculosis. it measures delayed-type hypersensitivity to tuberculoprotein

(this was on last exam…but it was on his study guide)

PPD

____ is a long chain fatty acid that makes up the cell wall of mycobacterium tuberculosis

(this was on last exam…but it was on his study guide)

mycolic acid

what is the virulence factor utilized by mycobacterium tuberculosis that inhibits lysosome-phagosome fusion by binding to the mitochondrial membrane?

(this was on last exam…but it was on his study guide)

cord factor

_________ is transmitted by lice and causes relapsing fever

(this was on last exam…but it was on his study guide)

borrelia recurrentis

explain how MRSA is resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics

synthesis/acquisition of PBP with a lower affinity for beta-lactams

chromosomal: mecA gene