CFI Ground Final

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Last updated 6:53 PM on 6/1/26
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113 Terms

1
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____ is a change in behavior resulting from experience

a. learning

b. knowledge

c. understanding

a. learning

2
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Learning is enhanced when a student has a clear objective. This is one feature of the principle of:

a. Primacy

b. Readiness
c. Willingness

b. Readiness

3
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Emotional reactions to a lesson and the impact on learning reflects the learning principle of

a. Effect

b. Primacy,

c. Intensity

a. Effect

4
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That a student will learn more from the real experience than from a substitute reflects the learning principle of

a. Effect

b. Primacy

c. Intensity

c. Intensity

5
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The basis of all learning is

a. Perception

b. Memory

c. Self-actualization

a. Perception

6
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Which of the following has the greatest influence on a person’s total perceptual process?

a. Self-concept

b. Innate talent

c. Time and opportunity

a. Self-concept

7
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!!! (open ended) Describe the impact of fear or element of threat on a student’s perceptual field.

It narrows a student’s perceptual field.

8
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Competent instruction speeds up the learning process by

a. Requiring the student to work under tough conditions

b. Emphasizing only the positive aspects of training.

c. Teaching the relationship of perceptions as they occur

c. Teaching the relationship of the perceptions as they occur

9
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The _____ memory system processes input from the environment.

a. Kinesthetic

b. Photographic

c. Sensory Register

c. Sensory Register

10
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The use of association such as rhymes or mnemonics is best suited to the _____ memory system.

a. Short-term

b. Artificial

c. Long-Term

c. Long-Term

11
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The learning of similar things overshadowing other learning experiences is called

a. Suppression

b. Correlation

c. Interference

c. Interference

12
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(open ended) A written test characteristic that measures small differences in achievement between learners.

Discrimination

13
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_______ consciously pushes a memory out of reach due to feeling associated with remembering it.

a. Avoidance

b. Suppression

c. Repression

b. Suppression

14
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_____ transfer of learning occurs when the performance of a maneuver interferes with the learning of another maneuver

a. Neutral

b. Positive

c. Negative

c. Negative

15
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(open ended) The level of learning tested by asking the numeric maneuvering speed of an aircraft

Rote

16
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The _____ domain of learning deals with knowledge

a. Affective

b. Cognitive

c. Psychomotor

b. Cognitive

17
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For oral quizzing to be effective during a lesson, a question should

a. be limited to who, what, where, when, why or how, but not a combination

b. include a combination of where, how and why

c. be easy for a learner at that particular stage of training.

a. be limited to who, what, where, when, why or how, but not a combination

18
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The most important consideration in evaluating the quality of a test is

a. Usability

b. Validity

c. Comprehensiveness

c. Validity

19
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The best way to prepare a student to perform a task is to

a. Ask whether s/he can explain the task

b. Provide a clear, step-by-step example

c. Provide a written outline of the task

b. Provide a clear, step-by-step example

20
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A learning plateau may be defined as the

a. Leveling off of learning at the point which a student has reached the highest competence of a particular subject

b. Gradual decrease in learning almost to the point where it appears to have ceased before it resumes and proficiency increases

c. Point in the learning curve at which skill proficiency regresses

b. Gradual decrease in learning almost to the point where it appears to have ceased before it resumes and proficiency increases.

21
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Students achieve better results if distractions are avoided during _____ practice

a. Deliberate practice

c. Itemized practice

c. Random practice

a. Deliberate practice

22
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An instructor may foster the development of insights by

a. Helping the student acquire a positive self-concept

b. Pointing out the unattractive features of the activity to be learned

c. Keeping the rate of learning varied and unpredictable

a. Helping the student acquire a positive self-concept

23
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Although the defense mechanisms can serve a useful purpose, they can

a. Provide feelings of inadequacy

b, Alleviate the root cause of errors

c. Involve some degree of self-deception and distortion of reality

c. Involve some degree of self-deception and distortion of reality

24
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A student using excuses to justify inadequate performance demonstrates

a. Fantasy

b, Displacement

c. Rationalization

c. Rationalization

25
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Attempting to disguise a weak or undesirable quality by emphasizing a more positive one is

a. Projection

b. Compensation

c. Rationalization

b. Compensation

26
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When under stress, normal individuals usually react by

a. Showing excellent morale followed by deep depression

b. Responding rapidly and often automatically within the limits of their experience and training

c. Showing extreme over-cooperation, painstaking self-control, and inappropriate laughing and/or singing

b. Responding rapidly and often automatically within the limits of their experience and training

27
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Which would be an abnormal reaction to stress?

a. Immediate mastery of the task or subject being taught

b. Inappropriate laughter or singing

c. Responding automatically as if by “rote” to a familiar situation

b. Inappropriate laughter or singing

28
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CFI's can counteract anxiety in a student by

a. anticipating situations where it might occur, discussing these with the student, and trating the fears as a normal reaction

b. withholding information about upcoming training subjects or tasks that might cause anxiety, then immediately discontinuing and avoiding further instruction if anxiety occurs.

c. Reviewing the full training syllabus and each lesson, then allowing the student to select which subjects and tasks will be learned.

a. Anticipating situations where it might occur, discussing these with the student, and treating the student’s fears as a normal reaction.

29
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Chronic fatigue as a result of psychological problems and/or psychological issues may be evidenced by a student’s apparent.

a. Increase in knowledge and skill retention

b. Need for an earlier lesson start-time

c. Acceptance of unwarranted risks

c. Acceptance of unwarranted risks

30
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Students who grow impatient when learning the basic elements of a task

a. Are more easily discouraged than an aggressive students

b. Should have the preliminary training presented one step at a time with clearly stated goal for each step

c. Should be advanced to the next higher level of training instead of completng immediate goals

b. Should have the preliminary training presented one step at a time with clearly stated goal for each step.

31
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Motivations that cause a student to react with fear and anxiety are

a. Tangible

b. Negative

c. Difficulty to identify

b. Negative

32
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Examples of tangible positive motivation include

a. Personal accomplishment, comfort and peer acceptance

b. Penalties in the form of reproof or threats

c. Financial gain, uniform insignia, or employment contracts

c. Financial gain, uniform insignia, or employment contracts

33
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The systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances is

a. Pilot judgment chain

b. Aeronautical decision making

c. Crew resource management

b. Aeronautical decision making

34
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Risk management relies on ____ to reduce the risks associated with each flight

a. Application of stress induction and risk element procedures

b. Analysis of only the most hazardous elements of a particular situation

c. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement

c. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement

35
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What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

a. Recognizing hazardous thoughts

b. Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation

c. Making an irrational judgement

a. Recognizing hazardous thoughts

36
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Success in reducing stress associated with a crisis in the cockpit begins with

a. Transferring risk to the other flight crewmember

b. Knowing the exact cause of the stress

c. Assessing stress areas in one’s personal life

c. Assesing stress areas in one’s personal life

37
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(open ended) What is the antidote phrase for the hazardous attitude of invulnerability?

It can happen to me, too

38
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The effectiveness of communication between instructor and student is measured by the

a. Degree of dynamic, interrelated elements

b Similarity between the idea transmitted and the idea received

c. Relationship between communicative and dynamic elements

b Similarity between the idea transmitted and the idea received

39
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The three dynamically interrelated elements that compose the process of communication are

a. Visual, auditory, and kinesthetic

b. Source, symbol and receiver

c. Background, experience, and education

b. Source, Symbol and RecieverProbably the greatest single barrier to effective communication is

40
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Probably the greatest single barrier to effective communication is

Lack of common experience between the student & the instructor

41
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Evaluation of demonstrated ability during flight instruction must be based on

a. The progress of the student

b. The instructor's opinion concerning the maneuvers

c. Established standards of performance

c. Established Standards of performance

42
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According to the Flight Instructor Model Code of Conduct, instructors should

a. Mentor new and future instructors

b. Work with other aviation professionals and service providers when necessary

c. Question the credibility and efficiency of the FAA whenever possible

a. Mentor new and future instructors

43
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The five responsibilities of aviation instructors are

a. Helping students learn, never assigning homework, providing lazy instruction, emphasizing the positive, providing pilot endorsements, and generating revenue tor the company

b Helping students learn, providing adequate instruction, demanding adequate standards of performance emphasizing the positive, and ensuring aviation safety

c. Helping students learn, providing adequate instruction, emphasizing the positive, practical test recommendations, reducing aviation safety

b. Helping students learn, providing adequate instruction, demanding adequate standards of performance, emphasizing the positive, and ensuring aviation safety

44
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Which statement is true regarding professionalism as an instructor?

a. Anything less than sincere performance destroys the instructor's effectiveness.

b. Instructor actions and decisions must be limited to standard patterns and practices.

c. Professionalism defines all required CFI qualifications and considerations.

a. Anything less than sincere performance destroys the instructor’s effectiveness

45
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Student confidence tends to be destroyed if instructors

a. Bluff when in doubt about some point

b. Continually identify student errors and failures

c. Direct and control the student's actions and behavior

a. Bluff when in doubt about some point

46
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The professional relationship between the instructor and the student should be based on a

a. predetermined code of ethics

b. A mutual acknowledgment that both the student and instructor are working toward the same objective

c. The knowledge that the instructor will maintain the highest level of knowledge, training, and currency during training

a. A predetermined code of ethics

47
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In the teaching process, which method of presentation is suitable for presenting new material for summarizing ideas, and for showing relationships between theory and practice

a. Lecture method

b. Integrated instruction method

c. Demonstration/performance method

a. Lecture method

48
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Which statement is true about motivations?

a. Motivations must be tangible to be effective

b. Motivations may be very subtle and difficult to identify

c. Negative motivations often are as effective as positive motivations

b. Motivations may be very subtle and difficult to identify

49
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The most significant characteristic of group learning is that it

a. Continually requires active participation of the student

b. Continually requires active participation of both the student and the instructor

c. Usually requires passive participation of the student

b. Continually requires active participation of both the student and the instructor.

50
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A reliable written test

a. yields consistent results

b. measures small differences in the achievement of students

c. measures what it is supposed to measure, and nothing else

a. yields consistent results

51
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Which type of question requires the student to combine knowledge with the ability to analyze, solve problems, and arrive at conclusions?

a. Fact questions

b. HOTS questions

c. Provocative questions

b. HOTS questions

52
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Which would be best used as a leadoff question for a guided discussion on the subject of torque?

a. Does torque affect an airplane?

b How does torque affect an airplane?

c. What affect does torque have on an airplane in a turn?

b. how does torque effect an airplane?

53
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The essential steps in the demonstration/performance method of teaching.

a. Demonstration, practice, and evaluation

b. Demonstration, student performance, and evaluation

c. Explanation, demonstration, student performance, CFI supervision, and evaluation

c. Explanation, demonstration, student performance, CFI supervision, and evaluation

54
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The overall learning objective in scenario-based training (SBT).

a. improve student ability to recall previously learned information

b. better prepare students to make good decisions based on a variety of real-world situations

c. reduce the risk of student situational awareness and independent decision-making

b. better prepare students to make good decisions based on a real-world situations

55
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The characteristic of an effective learning scenario.

a It does not promote errors

b. It is in the form of a traditional assessment

c. It includes an accurate account of an actual real-world situation

a. It does not promote errors

56
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During integrated flight instruction, the instructor must be sure the student

a. Develops the habit of looking for other traffic

b. Is able to control the aircraft for extended periods under IMC

c. Can depend on the flight instruments when maneuvering by outside references

a. develops the habit of looking for other traffic

57
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An example of a positive approach in the first flight lesson for a student with no previous aviation experience would be

a. Conducting a thorough preflight and testing knowledge of checklist memory items

b. A normal flight to a nearby airport and return

c. Instruction in the care which must be taken to avoid a runway incursion and wake turbulence

b. A normal flight to a nearby airport and return

58
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In planning any instructional activity, the first consideration should be given to

a. Determine the overall objectives and standards

b. Establish common ground between the instructor and student

c. Identify the blocks of learning which make up the overall objective

a. determine the overall objectives and standards

59
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Performance-based objectives consist of which three elements?

a. Flight training scenarios, judgment assessment, and maneuver assessment

b. Cognitive skills, affective skills, and psychomotor skills

c. Description of the skill or behavior, conditions, and criteria

c. Description of the skill or behavior, conditions, and criteria

60
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An instructor's assessment of a student should

a. Treat every aspect of the performance in detail

b. Be conducted in private so the student is not embarrassed

c. Provide objective direction and guidance to improve performance

c. Provide objective direction and guidance to improve performance.

61
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Explain the following types of practice:

  • Deliberate

  • Blocked

  • Random

  • Deliberate: practicing specific areas for improvement with specific feedback after practice

  • Blocked: repeated practice of the same task until it becomes automatic

  • Random: practicing a series of skills in a random order, allowing the learner to identify similarities and differences.

62
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According to the current Airman Certification Standards, the lesson plan only addresses which of the following three primary assessment areas for the intended learning objective?

a. Knowledge

b. Skill

c. Risk Management

b. Skill

63
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Which of the following determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

a. The method by which the air is lifted

b. The stability of the air before lifting occurs

c. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs

b. The stability of the air before lifting occurs

64
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A person who holds a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers for compensation or hire on a cross-country flight conducted beyond 50 NM from the departure point provided the pilot

a. holds an instrument rating on her/his pilot certificate.

b. conducts at least six takeoffs and landings in a complex airplane within the preceding 6 months.

c. Obtains a flight review and logs flight training in the company aircraft.

a. holds an instrument rating on her/his pilot certificate

65
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According to 61.109 an applicant for a Private Pilot certificate must obtain _____ hours of flight training with

an authorized instructor in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test within the preceding ____ calendar months from the month of the test.

a. 3.0, one

b. 3.0, two

c. 2.0, 24

b. 3.0, two

66
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(open ended) Using the Cessna 172 Skyhawk for reference, describe the indication(s) of a tailplane stall and the proper recovery procedure.

horizontal stabilizer icing can cause a tailplane stall, loss of tail down force. Nose will want to go down, controls could flutter and the controls will feel light in the nose-down direction. To recover, apply back pressure and retract the flaps.

67
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An operating coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required

a. Within 30 nm of an airport listed in Part 91 Appendix D(1) from the surface to 10,000' MSL.

b. Outside any Class A, B, or C airspace area; and below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower.

C. A and B

has to be a. Within 30nm of an airport listed in Part 91 Appendix D(1) from the surface to 10,000’ MSL.

68
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What type of oxygen should be used to replenish an aircraft oxygen system?

a. Medical

b. Aviation

c. Industrial

b. Aviation

69
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Your student is trained and endorsed for solo flight at night and for operations within Boston's Class B airspace. The student requests to fly a night solo into Boston Class B. Weather within the airspace is at Class B Basic VFR minimums per 14 CFR Part 91.155(a). Will you allow your student to conduct the flight?

a. Yes, the student has the required training and endorsements.

b. No, the available flight visibility does not meet student pilot night solo requirements.

c. No, per Part 91 Appendix D (4), student pilots cannot conduct solo operations in Boston Class B airspace.

b. Nom the avialable flight visibility does not meet student pilot solo requirements. (5sm at night per 61.89(a)(6))

70
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(open ended) Describe how a pilot can minimize the hazard of wake turbulence when departing behind a large aircraft.

Stay “in the bowl:” depart after, rotate before. Waiting a few minutes for wake to dissipate is best

71
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As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can experience

a. Decreased breathing rate

b. Heightened awareness and feeling of well being

c. Symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness

c. Symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness

72
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During night flight or flight in IMC, a rapid acceleration may induce the pilot to perceive the aircraft is in a nose-up attitude, and the pilot may push the aircraft into a nose-low or dive attitude. The illusion being experienced is the

a. Elevator illusion

b. Inversion illusion

c. Somatogravic illusion

c. Somatogravic illusion

73
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Aeronautical decision making (ADM) is a

a. Decision process reliant on good judgment and expert opinion to reduce risks associated with each flight.

b. Mental process of analyzing some information in a situation and possibly deciding on a course of action.

c. Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a set of circumstances.

c. Systematic approach to the mental processes used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a set of circumstances.

74
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CFI Supplement Figure 3. According to the METAR for KAUS,

a. RAHZ is not authorized

b. weather conditions meet MVFR parameters

c. the report was generated by an A300-5

b. weather conditions meet MVFR parameters

75
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Describe the general airflow pattern around

  • Low Pressure

  • High Pressure

Right Hand rule:

  • Low: inward, upward, counterclockwise

  • High: outward, downward and clockwise

76
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Flap type characterized by large increases in lift coefficient, mechanical complexity and overall weight.

a. Split

b. Fowler

c. Slotted

b. Fowler

77
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Which provides a large-scale graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather?

a. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

b. Radar Summary Chart

c. Graphic Forecast for Aviation

Graphic Forecast for Aviation

78
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For a person to operate a complex aircraft as pilot in command, s/he must

a. Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane.

b. Be found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane and receive a one-time logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying complex airplane proficiency.

c. A and B

c. A and B (receive and log flight training from an authorized CFI in a complex a/c or simulator representative of a complex a/c, and receive a one time endorsement from an authorized CFI)

79
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(open ended) List privileges and their duration for a second class medical certificate issued on 5/1/26 to a 25 yr old commercial pilot.

(under 25: 12, 12, 60 | over 25: 6, 12, 24)

second class privileges until 5/31/27, third class privileges until 5/31/31)

80
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CFI Supplement Figure 17. The load imparted on the aircraft by stalling at 156 KIAS would be

a. 3.75 Gs

b. 5.0 Gs

c. 6.25 Gs

c. 6.25 G

81
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The lower limit of the white are on an airspeed indicator represents

a. minimum controllable airspeed with the flaps partially extended

b. power-off stall speed in the landing configuration

c. power-off stall speed in a specified configuration

b. power off stall speed in the landing configuration

82
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Figure 18. An aircraft conducting 45 degree banked steep turns incurs

a. an 18% increase in stall speed and 1.5 G load factor.

b. a 25% increase in stall speed and 3.5 G load factor.

c. a 40% increase in stall speed and 5G load factor.

a, an 18% increase in stall speed and 1.5g load factor

83
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Blade angle of a propeller is defined as the angle between the

a. angle of attack and chord line

b. chord line and plane of rotation

c. angle of attack and line of thrust

b. chord line and plane of rotation

84
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To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting stations, the pilot should refer to a

a. Pilot report

b. Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast

c. Weather Depiction Chart

a. Pilot report (PIREP)

85
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Parasite drag is comprised of all the forces that act to slow aircraft movement and is

a. the rearward component of lift.

b. a by-product of lift production.

c. the drag not associated with the production of lift.

c. the drag not associated with the production of lift

86
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The angle of incidence is the angle between

a. the leading and trailing edge of the wing at its root and the same chord line at the wingtip

b. the chord line of the wing where it is mounted to the fuselage and the aircraft longitudinal axis

c. the lateral and vertical axis, the vertical and longitudinal axis, and the lateral and directional axis.

b. the chord line of the wing where it is mounted to the fuselage and the aircraft longitudinal axis

87
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The CG of an aircraft may be determined by

a. Dividing total arms by total moments

b. Dividing total weights by number of reference datum stations

c. Multiplying total weight by total moments

a. dividing total arms by total moments

88
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Radar echoes provide readings of precipitation intensity at levels of

a. Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme

b. Trace, Light, Moderate, Severe

c. Light, Moderate, Heavy, Extreme

c. Light, Moderate, Heavy, Extreme

89
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During takeoffs and landings at higher elevation airports the pilot should expect indicated airspeed

a. Will be unchanged and groundspeed will be faster

b. Will be higher and groundspeed will be unchanged

c. Will increase to compensate for the thinner air

a. will be unchanged and groundspeed will be faster

90
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The fuel/air mixture must be adjusted with changes in altitude due to changes in

a. fuel density

b. the stoichiometric ratio

c. air density

c. air density

91
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Flight speeds above Ve should be avoided to prevent

a. Excessive induced drag resulting in structural failure

b. Design limit load factors being exceeded if gusts are encountered

c. Control effectiveness being impaired, rendering the aircraft uncontrollable

b. Design limit load factors being exceeded if gusts are encountered

92
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(open ended) Explain wing "twist" or "washout" and its main purpose.

Wing washout is when the angle of incidence of the wing is higher at the wing root than at the wingtip. This causes the wing roots to stall before the tip allowing ailerons to maintain effectiveness in a stall.

93
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(open ended) List the incidents requiring immediate notification to the NTSB Part 830.

(FISTDOC)

  • Flight control malfunction

  • Inflight fire

  • Sickness/incapacitation of a required crewmember

  • Turbine failure (uncontained)

  • Damage to something other than a/c exceeding $25,000 in damages

  • Overdue aircraft

  • Collision inflight

94
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(open ended) Define a “serious injury”

(FISH5)

  • Fracture of bone (excl. Nose + Digits)

  • Internal organs

  • Severe hemorrhaging or damage to nerve, muscle or tendon

  • Hospitalization within 7 days for at least 48 hours

  • 5% of body covered in 2nd/3rd degree burns

95
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(open ended) does a prop strike require reporting if the engine needed to be replaced?

No, propeller damage or release due to ground contact is not required for reporting and is excluded from substantial damage.

96
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(open ended) Compare and contrast aircraft maneuverability and controllability.

Maneuverability is the ability to effectively manipulate the aircraft’s flight path (e.g. fly between mountains)

Controllability refers to the ability to manipulate attitude with flight controls

these concepts work together.

97
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The four height families of clouds are

a. stratus, cumulous, nimbus, and cirrus

b. clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air

c. low, middle, high and those with extensive vertical development

c. Low, middle, high, and those with extensive vertical development.

98
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Maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace is

a. 150 knots

b. 200 knots

c. 250 knots

b. 200 knots

99
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Your student forgets their ground lesson on how to turn the aircraft and cannot recall why the single-engine piston-driven aircraft tries to climb when entering a left turn or descend when entering a right turn. You can help him/her by explaining

a. The Bernoulli Principle and and its effect on angle of attack during turning flight.

b. How spiraling slipstream operates from the wingtips.

c. The left turning tendency of gyroscopic precession and its operation through the propeller during the turn.

c. Left turning tendency of gyroscopic procession and its operation through the propeller

(Left turn = forward force on right blade precesses down and causes pitch up. Right turn = forward force on left blade precesses up and causes nose down)

100
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A station along the intended route forecasting winds aloft at FL340 to be 330 at 120 knots, temperature - 60C. This data is depicted on the FD as

a. 3433-120

b. 832060

c. 332060

b. 832060 (add 500 for winds greater than 100kt, temps neg abv 320)