Patient Care Final

The standard principles of surgical asepsis include:

-not passing between the surgeon and the sterile field

-never reaching across a sterile field

-discarding items that become contaminated

-all of the above

all of the above

Which of the following methods of sterilization is the quickest and most convenient method for items that can withstand heat and moisture?

-conventional gas sterilization

-autoclaving

-chemical sterilization

-gas plasma technology

autoclaving

The fastest and safest method for sterilizing items that cannot withstand heat is:

- chemical sterilization

- gas sterilization using Freon and ethylene oxide

- gas plasma technology

- autoclaving

gas plasma technology

Which of the following sterilization methods requires the dissipation of poisonous gas?

- gas plasma technology

- chemical sterilization

- gas sterilization using Freon and ethylene oxide

- autoclaving

gas sterilization using Freon and ethylene oxide

A microorganism-free area prepared for the use of sterile supplies and equipment is called a(n):

- aseptic area

- surgical pack

- central sterile supply

- sterile field

sterile field

When a sterile procedure is delayed, which of the following is NOT an appropriate method of dealing with the sterile tray?

- if the tray is not open, do not open it

- if the tray is open, set it aside and avoid touching it

-if the tray is open, cover it with a sterile drape

- if the tray is open, discard it

if the tray is open, set it aside and avoid touching it

When you contaminate a field or observe it's contamination by someone else, the ethical awareness that requires you to tell the person in charge is referred to as a:

- sterile conscience

- aseptic consciousness

- surgical validation

- sepsis response

sterile conscience

The surgical hand rub is an alternative to:

- sterile gloving

- the surgical hand scrub

- protective gloving

- the open gloving technique

the surgical hand scrub

When preparing for a surgical procedure that requires complete sterile attire, which of the following steps takes place after the surgical hand scrub?

- put on surgical mask

- put on surgical gown

- open a pack of sterile towels

- cover hair with cap or hood

put on surgical gown

Which of the following is NOT worn by a radiographer when performing imaging procedures in surgery?

- surgical mask

- cap or hood

- scrub clothes

-sterile gown

sterile gown

It is important to check the patient chart for I&O orders when patients:

- arrive in the imaging department

- are ready to leave the imaging department

-request a drink of water

- are receiving intravenous fluids

request a drink of water

When emptying a urinary collection bag, it is important to:

- wear protective gloves

- measure the quantity emptied

- record the quantity in the chart

-all of the above

all of the above

Which of the following positions is considered safe for a patient who is nauseated and may vomit?

- supine

- prone

-trendenlenburg

- lateral recumbent

lateral recumbent

The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to:

- bacteria

- failure to keep warm

- lack of adequate circulation

- improper use of restraints

lack of adequate circulation

What is the name of the position in which the patient is lying supine with the head lower than the feet?

- sims

-trendelenburg

- fowler

- recumbent

trendelenburg

The term for loss of bladder or bowel control is:

- debilitation

- lordosis

- incontinence

- orthopnea

incontinence

It is most comfortable for a patient with abdominal pain to be positioned:

- in the semi-fowler position

- with a bolster under the knees

- prone

- both a&b

both a&b

A physician's order is legally requires to:

- raise the side rails on a bed or stretcher

- immobilize a child for a chest radiograph

- use a compression band to prevent a fall from the x-ray table

- use wrist and ankle straps to secure a patient to the bed

use wrist and ankle straps to secure a patient to the bed

Periosteal reaction from repeated bruising of the bone is visible radiographically and should lead to suspicion of:

- non accidental trauma

- lordosis

- incontinence

- orthopnea

non accidental trauma

Which of the following signs should raise concern about the possibility of elder abuse?

- incontinence

- bruises, abrasions, or burns

- forgetfulness

- confusion

bruises, abrasions, or burns

Part of your initial assessment of a patient's status should include assessment of body temperature by:

- checking the temperature graph in the patient's chart

- evaluating the skin temperature by touch

- take a rectal temperature

- taking an axillary temperature

evaluating the skin temperature by touch

110/78 mm Hg is a typical measurement for which of the following vital signs?

-blood pressure

- pulse rate

- respiratory rate

- body temperature

blood pressure

A serum bilirubin test is used to measure:

- blood oxygen levels

- nitrogen in blood

- blood glucose status when fasting

- conjugated hemoglobin content in blood

conjugated hemoglobin content in blood

When a patient's appearance takes on a bluish color, especially in the nail beds and mucous membranes of the mouth, the patient is described as:

- jaundice

- hypertensive

- cyanotic

- hyperventilating

cyanotic

The normal heart rate for an adult is:

- 12 to 20 bpm

- 80 to 120 bpm

- 60 to 100 bpm

- 98 to 99 bpm

60 to 100 bpm

When the heart rate is measured by placing a stethoscope on the chest directly over the heart, this is called a(n):

- carotid pulse

- apical pulse

- pedal pulse

- radial pulse

apical pulse

The term tachycardia refers to:

- high blood pressure

- rapid breathing

- rapid heart rate

- fever

rapid heart rate

Which of the following instruments is used to monitor both the pulse and the oxygen saturation of the blood?

- sphygmomanometer

-electrocardiograph

- electroencephalograph

- pulse oximeter

pulse oximeter

A common side effect of an anticholinergic drug is:

- nausea

- dry mouth

- bruising or spontaneous bleeding

- constipation

dry mouth

Medications used to regulate blood glucose levels include insulin and metformin. These medications are classified as:

- antiarrhythmics

- anticonvulsants

- analgesics

- hypoglycemic agents

hypoglycemic agents

Opioid medications are prescribed for the purpose of:

- alleviating pain

-reversing the effects of an opium

- regulating the heart rhythm

- preventing infection

alleviating pain

The name given to a medication by the manufacturer is called its __________ name.

- chemical

- proprietary

- generic

- common

proprietary

Narcan is an antagonist drug that may be given in cases of an overdose of a(n) __________ medication.

- opiate

- benzodiazepine

- anticholinergic

- hypoglycemic

opiate

The method by which drug metabolites are eliminated from the body is called:

- absorption

- assimilation

-excretion

- distribution

excretion

An idiosyncratic medication reaction is one that is:

- additive

- allergic

- therapeutic

-unusual

unusual

A common medication that is classed as both a tranquilizer and an anticonvulsant is:

- meperidine

- diphenhydramine

- betadine

- diazepam

diazepam

The intended effect of succinylcholine chloride is:

- anesthesia

- muscle paralysis

- heart stimulation

- sedation

muscle paralysis

Diphenhydramine is classified as a(n) __________ medication.

- antihistamine

- analgesic

- anticholinergic

- ACE inhibitor

antihistamine

Medications given in imaging departments are most often administered via the route that provides the most rapid response. This is the:

-SC route

- intradermal route

- IV route

- intrathecal route

IV route

When monitoring IV fluids, maintain the bag or bottle at a height of __________inches above the vein.

- 40-50

- 34-36

- 18-20

- 10-12

18-20

The average flow rate for infusion of IV fluids is:

- 5 to 10 drops/min

- 15 to 20 drops/min

- 40 to 50 drops/min

- 60 drops/min

15 to 20 drops/min

The administration of a medication by means of a rectal suppository is an example of using which of the following routes of administration?

- buccal

- enteral

- intradermal

- IM

enteral

A medication is prescribed according to the patient's weight in the metric system. The patient weighs 140 lbs. His weight in the metric system is approximately _____kg.

-308

- 110

- 64

- 28

64

The route of administration for any medication order is determined by referring to:

- the drug package insert

- the physician's order

- the patient's nurse

- the patient

the physician's order

When medication is injected into the spinal canal, the method of administration is called:

- IM

- SC

- intradermal

- intrathecal

intrathecal

A butterfly set is a speciality needle used for which of the following types of injections?

- intradermal

- IV

- intra-arterial

- IM

IV

Leakage of IV fluid into the surrounding tissues is termed:

- infiltration

- angina pectoris

- hematoma

- hydrostatic pressure

infiltration

Needleless medication systems and SESIPS are devices that provide:

- safety to patients by preventing overdose

- safety to hospitals by recording dosages correctly

- safety to health care personnel by preventing infections from needlesticks

- economy by minimizing medication waste

safety to health care personnel by preventing infections from needlesticks

Patients who are experiencing difficulty breathing and who do not have COPD may safely receive supplemental oxygen through a nasal cannula at a flow rate of:

- 100%

- 1 to 6 L/min

- 5 to 10 L/min

- 10 to 20 L/min

1 to 6 L/min

Your patient collapses on the floor in front of you. After sharing him or her and calling his or her name without any response, you decide to activate the code system. Which standardized code would be the most appropriate code for you to call?

- red

- blue

- orange

- amber

blue

Code grey means:

- a combative patient

- the patient has an obstructed airway

- a hostage situation

- a hazardous material spill/release

a combative patient

The most appropriate type of oxygen administration device to provide a patient with 100% oxygen is:

- nasal prongs

- a partial rebreathing face mask

- a nonrebreathing face mask

- an oxygen tent

a nonrebreathing face mask

A procedure that is ordered as a STAT should be performed:

- only when a physician is present

- before the day's end

- as soon as is practical

- immediately

immediately

During trauma radiography, care must be taken to:

- cause no further harm to the patient

- proceed with imaging as slowly as possible

- obtain textbook quality images by moving the patient into standard positions

- manipulate the patient into position as quickly as possible

cause no further harm to the patient

Equipment that may be necessary for trauma radiography includes:

- positioning aids such as tape and/or sponges

- cassette covers

- lead aprons and shielding

- all of the above

all of the above

The primary purpose of an impermeable cassette cover is to:

- cushion the patient from the hard cassette

- keep the cassette free from blood and body fluids

- allow the cassette to slide better under the patient

- avoid the need to disinfect the equipment after the examination

keep the cassette free from blood and body fluids

Trauma patients should only be removed from a backboard if/when:

- their spines have been cleared by a physician

-they ask to be removed

- they need to vomit

- they need to use the restroom

their spines have been cleared by a physician

The purpose of the Rapid Response Team is to:

- transfer patients rapidly from one location to the next

- treat patients before their condition deteriorates

- investigate and monitor patient complaints

- prevent patients from exiting the building

treat patients before their condition deteriorates

While you are positioning Margaret Dunne for an upright chest radiograph, she collapses against you and slips to the floor. The first thing you should do is:

- call a code

- "shake and shout"

- get the emergency drug box

- start CPR

"shake and shout"

A patient who reports that he feels as if the room is spinning is experiencing:

- A heart attack

- hypoglycemia

- postural hypotension

- Vertigo

Vertigo

Epistaxis is another name for:

- A seizure

- A nose bleed

- Syncope

- Angina

A nose bleed

while taking radiographs on a trauma patient, you should be especially alert for signs of:

- absence

- Syncope

- Hypoglycemia

- Shock

Shock

shock resulting from blood loss is called:

- hypovolemic shock

- septic shock

- Cardiogenic shock

- Neurogenic shock

hypovolemic shock

which of the following treatments is appropriate when a patient is experiencing syncope?

- The administration of sweet fruit juice

- Assist the patient to lie down and elevate the feet

- Use of an AED

- Call a code and begin CPR

Assist the patient to lie down and elevate the feet

when a diabetic patient has taken the usual dose of insulin, but has not eaten, he or she may feel faint and weak, and may show signs of sweating and tremors. The term for this condition is:

- diabetic coma

- Hyperglycemia

- hypoglycemia

- epistaxis

hypoglycemia

CVA is the abbreviation for a term that refers to:

- A stroke

- A heart attack

- A type of seizure

- A type of fracture

A stroke

when a patient experiences a seizure, your priority is to:

- Keep him or her safe

- Call for help

- Finish the examination

- Restrain the patient

Keep him or her safe

preparation for an upper G.I. series, usually involves:

- Cathartics

- Suppositories

- Enemas

- Nothing by mouth for 8 hours

Nothing by mouth for 8 hours

The usual contrast medium used for GI studies is:

- barium sulfate

- Glucophage

- Gastrografin

- A non-ionic iodine compound

barium sulfate

A position that assist the gravity flow of barium from the stomach is:

- Supine

- Prone

- Right anterior oblique

- Left posterior oblique

Right anterior oblique

oral administration and enteroclysis are methods of administering the contrast medium for examination of the:

- esophagus

- Stomach

- Small bowel

- Colon

Small bowel

follow up care after an upper G.I. series, or other barium study usually involves:

- A clear liquid diet

- Cleansing enemas

- A cathartic such as citrate of magnesia

- Glucagon

A cathartic such as citrate of magnesia

when performing a BE on a patient with Hirschsprung disease, safety concerns may require mixing the barium with:

- Flavor and coloring

- Normal saline

- Iodine contrast

- A gas producing powder

Normal saline

A suppository is most likely used in preparation for which of the following examinations?

- barium enema

- enteroclysis

-oral small bowel series

- Upper G.I. series

barium enema

A Foley catheter would be useful in performing which of the following examinations?

- Double contrast barium enema performed through the rectum

- Barium enema performed through a colostomy

- Enteroclysis

- double contrast upper G.I. series

Barium enema performed through a colostomy

which of the following examinations requires barium and air to be instilled into the G.I. tract via a catheter?

- double contrast upper G.I. series

- routine BE

- double contrast lower G.I. series

- defecography

double contrast lower G.I. series

which of the following contrast media preparations would be appropriate for a G.I. examination when there is likelihood of colon perforation, or when G.I. surgery is immediately anticipated

- barium sulfate mixed with normal saline solution

- Barium sulfate mixed with carbonated beverage

- An iodinated contrast medium

- Normal saline solution with glucagon

An iodinated contrast medium

when molecules of water, soluble iodine contrast do not dissociate, but remain whole in solution, the medium is described as:

- ionic

- nonionic

- HOCM

- viscous

nonionic

blood chemistry values that provide information pertinent to the administration of iodine contrast agents include:

- Blood glucose and total cholesterol

- High density lipoprotein cholesterol and BUN

- BUN and creatinine

- Blood glucose and bilirubin

BUN and creatinine

which of the following examinations provides images of the urethra?

- VCUG

- IVU

- BUN

- ERCP

VCUG

MRCP, ERCP, and T-Tube cholangiography may be performed to show the:

- Gallbladder

- Spleen

- Common bile duct

- Ureters

Common bile duct

a sterile manometer and specimen tubes might be needed when preparing to perform a(n):

- Cystogram

- Myelogram

- Excretory urogram

- Arthrogram

Myelogram

diabetic patients who are to receive an iodine contrast agent should have their medication withheld if it contains:

- Glucose

- Insulin

- Metformin

- Beta blockers

Metformin

iodine compounds injected into a blood vessel, are excreted from the blood by the:

- Colon

- Liver

- Pancreas

- Kidneys

Kidneys

The risk of a severe allergic response to an iodine contrast injection is greatest with patients who have a history of:

- Asthma

- Heart disease

- Diabetes

- Kidney failure

Asthma

The effect of a diuretic medication is to:

- Reduce blood glucose levels

- Promote urination

- Reduce histamine levels

- Prevent nausea

Promote urination

A cystogram is a radiographic study of the:

- Gallbladder

- Common bile duct

- Soft tissues of a joint

- Urinary bladder

Urinary bladder

which precaution must be followed when obtaining a lateral chest, x-ray on a patient who has recently had a pacemaker implanted?

- Do not abduct the left arm

- Do not abduct the right arm

- Do not allow the patient to sit upright

- Do not allow the patient to lie flat

Do not abduct the left arm

which of the following actions is/are essential before performing a bedside radiographic examination?

- Check with the patient's nurse to inquire about the patient's condition

- Confirm the order in the patient's medical record

- Greet the patient, check the arm band, and prepare the room

- All of the above

All of the above

nasogastric tubes are placed in patients for the purpose of:

- Feeding

- Decompression of gas and fluids

- Imaging

- All of the above

All of the above

an example of a nasogastric tube used to feed the patient is a __________ tube.

- Dobbhoff

- Miller-Abbott

- Harris

- Cantor

Dobbhoff

The tip of a PICC or any central venous catheter should be visualized in the:

- Pulmonary artery

- Right atrium

- Right ventricle

- Superior vena cava

Superior vena cava

when a Swan-Ganz catheter is in a wedged capillary posit, it lies in:

- The right or left pulmonary artery

- The right ventricle

- A branch of the pulmonary artery

- The left atrium

A branch of the pulmonary artery

which of the following is NOT a central venous catheter?

- Hickman

- Groshong

- Swan-Ganz

- PICC

Swan-Ganz

bedside radiography may be advantageous for patients in:

- Special care units

- Isolation

- Orthopedic traction

- All of the above

All of the above

an implanted device that electrically stimulates the heart to control its rate is called a:

- Pacemaker

- Salem Sump

- Central venous catheter

- Mechanical ventilator

Pacemaker

A surgical opening into the trachea that provides a temporary or permanent, artificial airway is called a:

- Tracheotomy

- Tracheostomy

- Pacemaker

- Ventilator

Tracheostomy

which of the following individuals is not one of the sterile members of the surgical team?

- Scrub nurse

- Circulating nurse

- Surgeon

- Assistant to the surgeon

Circulating nurse

before entering the surgical suite, the radiographer must on the required surgical attire that includes:

- Non-sterile shirt and nonsterile pants, a mask, and cap or hood

- sterile shirt and pants, a mask, and cap or hood

- nonsterile shirt and shoe covers only

- sterile gown and cap or hood

Non-sterile shirt and nonsterile pants, a mask, and cap or hood

which of the following members of the surgical team is most likely to place the IR for a surgical image of the abdominal area?

- anesthesiologist

- Circulating nurse

- Surgeon

- Another radiologic technologist

Surgeon