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List Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs from top to bottom
psychological
safety
love and belonging
esteem
self-actualization
What are the 2 most basic needs on Maslows Hierarchy?
biological/physiological and safety
What are the 2 psychological needs on Maslows Hierarchy?
esteem and love/belonging
What is the self fulfillment needs on Maslows Hierarchy?
self actualization
This needs can be defined as the most basic and include food, water, and shelter
Physiological needs
This need includes security, health, and finances
safety needs
This need includes friendship, intimacy, family, and connections
love and belonging needs
This need includes respect, status, recognition, strength, and self-esteem
esteem needs
This need includes meeting one’s full potential in life which is different for every person
self-actualization
What does D.A.B.D.A. represent and what to they each stand for?
The grieving process
D - denial
A -anger
B - bargaining
D - depression
A - acceptance
During the grieving process, if a person says “Yes, me, but…” what stage are they most likely in?
Bargaining stage
This stage of the grieving process should be supported with silence and acceptance
Denial
This stage of the grieving process often complains about service
Anger
This stage of the grieving process focuses on hope and may be religion based
Bargaining
This stage of the grieving process experiences a total lack of feeling
Acceptance
What does A.I.D.E.T stand for?
A - acknowledge
I - introduce
D - duration
E - explanation of exam
T - thank you
T/F; when speaking to patients it is best to avoid leading questions
True
Pitch, tone, rate, and volume of how you speak refers to what type of language?
paralanguage
What type of data collection is perceptible to the senses, measurable, quantifiable information that can be observed and recorded without bias
Objective data
Recording blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and level of consciousness are examples of objective or subjective data
objective
This type of data collection is perceived by the patient
subjective data
Recording pain levels, nausea, anxiety, or a change in appetite are examples of objective or subjective data collection
subjective
T/F: you should never disregard what the patient says
True
This is defined as the branch of science that deals with how things move
biomechanics
The base of support is where the body ___
rests
Where is the center of gravity on a person?
second sacral segment (S2)
What is the most common injury a radiologic tech has?
back injuries
T/F: the best base if support includes a wide stance
True
T/F: when moving a patient it is best if they just sit still and you do all the moving
False. Let the patient move as much as they can
What is it called when the patient experiences a drop in blood pressure after they sit or stand too quickly
Orthostatic hypotension
What are some symptoms of orthostatic hypotension?
dizziness, fainting, burred vision, and slurred speech
A ____ assist should be used when the patient can move on their own and the chair should be placed 45-degree angle to the table
standby
A ___ ___ pivot should be used when both you and the patient pivot toward the table and lower them down
assisted standing
A ___ ___ lift should be used when one person lifts at the torso and one lifts the lower half. the patient crosses their arms over their chest and is lifted to the chair which is parallel to the table
two-person
When is a hoyer lift used and what is its secondary name
Hydraulic lift and is used for extremely obese or disabled patients
T/F: it is best to push the patient from one bed to the next
False, it is better to pull than push
___ motion is controlled by the patient (breathing, talking, moving)
voluntary
What is the best way to control voluntary motion?
communication
___ motion is not controlled by the patient (shivering, muscle spasms, heartbeat)
involuntary
What is the best way to control involuntary motion?
fast exposure time
T/F: sandbags are radiolucent
False, they are radiopaque
List all 6 vital signs and the proper number or range for an adult
temperature - 98-99
pulse - 60-100
respiration - 12-20 breaths per min
blood pressure - 120/80
pain level
sensorium
What does sensorium check for?
patient alertness
What is known as the 5th cardinal signal?
pain levels
This can be defined as the body’s mechanism of controlling heat production and heat loss
thermoregulation
What is the temperature of the body controlled by?
hypothalamus
How does the respiratory system dissipate heat?
through ventilation (breathing)
Tell the temperature for each body part:
oral
axillary
tympanic
rectal
temporal artery
oral - 98.6
axillary - 97.6
tympanic - 99.6
rectal - 99.6
temporal - 98.6
Where is the safest spot to take a patients temperature?
axillary
What is the most common spot to take a patients temperature?
oral
Where would the most reliable temperature be taken from?
the rectal
If a patient is described a being febrile, what does that mean?
they have an elevated body temperature
What is the clinical term for fever
pyrexia
Hyperpyrexia means that the patients temperature is above ___
105.8
This temperature condition occurs when the body overheats and causes life-threatening conditions
Hyperthermia
This temperature condition occurs whe he bodies core drops below 95
Hypothermia
Where is the most accurate place to take the pulse of an infant or child?
apical
Where is the most accurate place to take the pulse of an adult?
carotid
What is an average pediatric pulse rate?
70-120 bpm
What is the major muscle of ventilation?
diaphragm
What is the major organ of ventilation?
lungs
T/F: one inspiration and one expiration is reffered to as one respiration
True
T/F: newborns have a faster repiration than adults
True
Define dyspnea
difficulty breathing
Define tachypnea
rapid respirations
Define apnea
not breathing
What does a pulse oximeter measure?
hemoglobin oxygen saturation in the blood and pulse
T/F: a normal pulse ox value ranges from 92%-100%
True
Where is the pulse oximeter placed?
finger, toe, earlobe, or temple
What is the most common oxygen delivery device?
nasal cannula
___ describes the insertion of a tubular device into a canal, hollow organ, or cavity
intubation
___ describes the removal of a tube from a canal, hollow organ, or cavity
extubation
Where should the distal end of an ET tube be placed?
1-2 inches above the tracheal bifurcation
T/F: drug-induced relaxation allows patients to tolerate unpleasant procedures
True
How often should a crash cart be checked and how often should they be restocked?
they should be checked at least monthly and restocked after each use
Brain injury may occur within __ to __ min without oxygen
4-6
what are the 4 classifications of microorganisms?
Pathogens
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
These are known as single-cell organisms. prokaryotes that lack a nucleus
Bacteria
Bacteria resides in the hot as a group or cluster called a ___
colony
Bacteria produces ___ that remain ___ and highly resistant to the environment
endospores and dorment
Streptococcal, staphyloccal, salmonella, lyme disease, gonorrhea, syphylis, and tetanus are all types of ___ infections
bacterial
___ are the smallest microorganisms known to produce disease
viruses
T/F: a virus cannot live outside a living cell
True
What is a viral infection caused by?
a viron
T/F: viruses can infect pants, animals, and human
True
Common cold, flu, warts, mumps, measules, hepatitis, AIDS, and chicken pox are all examples of ____
viruses
Molds are the primary source of making ___ and ___
drugs and cheese
What are the 2 types of parasites?
he
Helminths are also known as ___ and live in the intestinal tract for ling periods of time if not treated
parasitic worms
Diseases can be transmitted through ___ or ___ contact
direct or indirect
List the chain of infection
pathogen
reservoir of infection
Portal of exit
Mode of transportation
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
Droplets can travel up to __ to __ feet
3-5
Where are nosocromial infections are acquired?
in the hosptial
What is the most common nosocomial infection?
urinary tract infection from urinary catheters
What are some risk factors for obtaining a nosocomial infection?
age
heredity
nutritional staus
stress
inadequate rest or exercise
habits
health
inadequate defenses
What are the two types of asepsis
surgical and medical
What is the most effective way to prevent infections from spreading?
hand washing
This is defined as the complete destruction of microbe and their spores
sterilization
What is the best method of sterilization?
autoclave
This is known as a device that produces steam under pressure to sterilize instruments
autoclave