Pharm 4b: Nucleic Acid/Protein Synthesis Inhibitors

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Last updated 7:33 PM on 4/10/26
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86 Terms

1
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Why is folic acid important in cells?

Needed for synthesis of DNA, RNA, and amino acids.

2
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What molecule is part of folic acid synthesis and is targeted by sulfonamides?

Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA).

3
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What is sulfamethoxazole (SMX)?

A folate synthesis inhibitor and Dihydropteroate synthase - a PABA analog for folic acid

4
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What is the mechanism of action of sulfamethoxazole?

Competitively inhibits dihydropteroate synthase and blocks conversion involving PABA toward folic acid synthesis.

5
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Is sulfamethoxazole bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bacteriostatic.

6
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What enzyme does trimethoprim inhibit?

Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR).

7
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What does DHFR normally do?

Reduces dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate.

8
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What is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim?

Competitively binds and inhibits DHFR.

9
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Is trimethoprim bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bacteriostatic.

10
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Why are TMP and SMX used together?

They are synergistic, block sequential steps in folate synthesis, and lower the likelihood of resistance.

11
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What is the brand name combination of TMP-SMX?

Bactrim.

12
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What infections does TMP-SMX treat?

UTIs, respiratory tract infections, and GI infections.

13
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What organisms are covered by TMP-SMX for UTIs?

E. coli, K. pneumoniae, and Proteus.

14
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What organisms are covered by TMP-SMX for respiratory infections?

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.

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What organisms are covered by TMP-SMX for GI infections?

E. coli, Shigella, and Salmonella.

16
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What are the adverse effects of sulfamethoxazole?

Photosensitivity and nephrotoxicity.

17
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What are the adverse effects of trimethoprim?

Bone marrow suppression, megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, and black tarry or clay-colored stools.

18
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How are quinolones commonly identified by name?

They end in -floxacin.

19
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What do quinolones inhibit?

Nucleic acid synthesis, specifically one or both Type II topoisomerases.

20
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What do quinolones inhibit in Gram-negative bacteria?

DNA gyrase.

21
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What do quinolones inhibit in Gram-positive bacteria?

Topoisomerase IV.

22
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Are quinolones bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bactericidal.

23
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Why do fluoroquinolones have stronger activity than older quinolones?

Newer quinolones have fluoride added, enhancing bactericidal properties.

24
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What are examples of fluoroquinolones?

Ciprofloxacin and Ofloxacin.

25
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What are the main uses of fluoroquinolones?

UTIs and GI infections.

26
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What organisms are covered by fluoroquinolones?

E. coli, Klebsiella, Campylobacter jejuni, Salmonella, and Shigella.

27
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What morphology clue is attached to many fluoroquinolone targets?

Many are Gram-negative rods.

28
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What is special about levofloxacin?

It covers usual UTI/GI organisms plus pneumonia organisms.

29
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What additional organisms does levofloxacin cover?

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and Legionella.

30
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What major adverse effects are associated with fluoroquinolones?

Tendinitis, tendon rupture, and peripheral neuropathy.

31
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What age group should not receive fluoroquinolones?

Anyone under 18 years old.

32
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What is rifampin derived from?

Rifamycin B; it is a semisynthetic derivative.

33
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What is the mechanism of action of rifampin?

Inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and halts RNA synthesis.

34
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What is rifampin mainly used for?

Tuberculosis in most patients.

35
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What other infections can rifampin treat?

Mycobacterium avium complex and leprosy.

36
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What body fluid color change is classically seen with rifampin?

Orange urine or sweat.

37
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Who is rifabutin mainly used for?

HIV patients with TB.

38
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How does rifabutin differ from rifampin in CYP effect?

Rifabutin is a less potent CYP450 inducer.

39
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What is metronidazole?

A nucleic acid inhibitor and a prodrug.

40
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How is metronidazole activated?

By pyruvate ferredoxin oxidoreductase (PFOR).

41
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What organisms does metronidazole work against?

Anaerobes and protozoa.

42
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Why is metronidazole selective for anaerobes and protozoa?

Eukaryotes lack PFOR, so the drug is not activated in them.

43
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What is the mechanism of action of activated metronidazole?

Forms cytotoxic compounds that bind to DNA.

44
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What protozoa are treated by metronidazole?

Giardia, Entamoeba, and Trichomonas vaginalis.

45
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What anaerobic bacteria are treated by metronidazole?

Clostridioides difficile and Bacteroides.

46
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What is the size of the bacterial ribosome?

70S

made up from 50s and 30s (math doesnt add up)

47
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What makes up the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit?

A single 16S rRNA molecule.

48
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What makes up the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit?

23S rRNA.

49
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How are aminoglycosides commonly identified by name?

Often end in -mycin or -micin.

50
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What aminoglycosides are specifically listed?

Streptomycin, Gentamicin, and Amikacin.

51
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What infections are aminoglycosides used for?

Francisella tularensis and Yersinia pestis.

52
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What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

Bind the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit protein synthesis.

53
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Are aminoglycosides bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bactericidal.

54
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What happens at low concentrations of aminoglycosides?

Ribosomes misread mRNA during elongation, inserting wrong amino acids into proteins.

55
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What happens at high concentrations of aminoglycosides?

Complete inhibition of protein synthesis.

56
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What is the aminoglycoside triad of adverse effects?

Ototoxicity, acute renal failure, and neuromuscular blockade.

57
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What is important about aminoglycoside ototoxicity?

Can cause irreversible auditory or vestibular damage, damaging hair cells.

58
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What serious outcome can aminoglycoside neuromuscular blockade cause?

Respiratory paralysis.

59
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How are aminoglycoside adverse effects related to dosing?

Dose dependent and duration dependent.

60
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How are tetracyclines commonly identified by name?

They end in -cycline.

61
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What tetracyclines are most often used?

Doxycycline and Minocycline.

62
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Why are doxycycline and minocycline commonly used?

Better patient compliance.

63
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Are tetracyclines broad or narrow spectrum?

Broad spectrum.

64
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What organisms are listed under tetracycline coverage?

Borrelia burgdorferi and Rickettsia rickettsii.

65
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What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

Bind reversibly to 16S rRNA.

66
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Are tetracyclines bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bacteriostatic.

67
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What is the age restriction for tetracyclines?

Avoid in children under 8 years old.

68
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What are the classic tetracycline adverse effects?

Tooth staining, possible reduced skeletal growth, sun sensitivity, and increased sunburn risk.

69
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What note was made about tetracycline tooth staining?

Current research suggests this may not be as absolute as once thought.

70
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How are macrolides commonly identified by name?

They end in -thromycin.

71
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What macrolides are listed?

Erythromycin, Azithromycin, and Clarithromycin.

72
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What infections do macrolides treat?

- Pneumonia

- Mycoplasma

- Legionella

- Chlamydophila pneumoniae

- H. pylori with amoxicillin

- Chlamydia trachomatis

73
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What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?

Bind the 50S ribosomal subunit and block the exit tunnel where peptides emerge.

74
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What is the most common reason patients stop macrolides?

GI intolerance.

75
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What is telithromycin?

A derivative of erythromycin, formerly classified as a ketolide.

76
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How does telithromycin work?

Same mechanism as macrolides, with higher affinity for the 50S ribosomal subunit.

77
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Who should not receive telithromycin?

Patients with myasthenia gravis, as it can worsen muscle weakness.

78
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What is chloramphenicol?

A natural product from Streptomyces and a protein synthesis inhibitor.

79
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What is the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?

Binds 23S rRNA and acts on the 50S subunit.

80
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Is chloramphenicol bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bacteriostatic.

81
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What infections is chloramphenicol used for?

H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, Bacteroides, and Rickettsia species.

82
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When is chloramphenicol usually used?

When no safer option is available.

83
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Why is chloramphenicol rarely used?

High toxicity and can inhibit mitochondrial protein synthesis.

84
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What are the major adverse effects of chloramphenicol?

Gray baby syndrome, aplastic anemia, and bone marrow damage.

85
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Know the table of antibiotics and their MOA and types of infections

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86
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Match the adverse effect with the antimicrobial: chloramphenicol, tetracycline, aminoglycoside, and rifampin

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