Dispensing Pretest

In order to ensure proper medication use, storage and compliance with applicable statutes, what should be affixed on the label of the drug?

a. Auxiliary and/or cautionary label

b. Expiration date of the mediation

c. Product strength

d. Quantity of medication dispensed

a. Auxiliary and/or cautionary label

What term refers to an undesirable reaction occurring when two or more substances are combined, leading to reduced potency or patient harm?

a. Drug stability

b. Pharmaceutical incompatibility

c. Pharmaceutical interaction

d. Therapeutic substitution

b. Pharmaceutical incompatibility

Which of the following is not a type of pharmaceutical incompatibility?

a. Physical

b. Chemical

c. Therapeutic

d. Pharmacological

d. Pharmacological

Which of the following reactions is an example of immiscibility?

a. Calcium chloride with sodium bicarbonate

b. Oil mixed with water without emulsifier

c. Iron salts with tannic acid

d. Epinephrine with alkaline solution

b. Oil mixed with water without emulsifier

Mixing calcium gluconate and sodium bicarbonate leads to

a. Gas formation

b. Cloudiness

c. Precipitation of calcium carbonate

d. Viscosity reduction

c. Precipitation of calcium carbonate

Which law ensures access to and availability of essential drugs in the Philippines?

a. RA 9502

b. RA 9165

c. RA 10918

d. RA 11223

a. RA 9502

What is the primary role of pharmacists in clinical pharmacy practice?

a. Medication management

b. Patient diagnosis

c. Surgical assistance

d. Therapeutic massage

a. Medication management

 _____ is a term used in an inpatient, or an institutional healthcare system and a written instruction provided by a prescribing physician for a specific medication to be administered.

a. Medication Order

b. Medication Profile

c. Patient Profile Chart

d. Prescription

a. Medication Order

The word prescription derives from the Latin term prescriptionem which means?

a. A writing before

b. Let the patient take

c. To take

d. To write

a. A writing before

Medication orders contain the following, EXCEPT:

a. Laboratory test/s

b. Medications

c. Patients diet schedule

d. Procedures

c. Patients diet schedule

Which of the following drug classification requires special license, strict monitoring, regulation and controlled dispensing?

a. Anti- TB Medications

b. Dangerous Drugs

c. Maintenance Drugs

d. Sterile Medications

b. Dangerous Drugs

The following are pharmacy services with direct patient interaction, EXCEPT:

a. Extended Pharmacy Service

b. Immunization

c. Medical Consultation

d. Patient Counseling

a. Extended Pharmacy Service

_____ is a very important part of a prescription to avoid unnecessary refilling of prescription.

a. Date

b. Mitte

c. Prescriber's signature

d. Signatura

a. Date

What is the name of the medication/s, substance/s or remedy/-ies to be supplied, prepared or compounded? 

a. Inscription

b. Prescriber's Information

c. Subscription

d. Superscription

a. Inscription

What is a part of prescription ensuring correctness and appropriateness of the medication to the patient?

a. Inscription

b. Prescriber's Information

c. Subscription

d. Superscription

c. Subscription

What part of prescription is a sign of practice, that if it’s not present it will not be called as prescription by law?

a. Inscription

b. Prescriber's Information

c. Subscription

d. Superscription

d. Superscription

What part of a prescription needs to be complete to assess if its authentic and genuine before dispensing?

a. Inscription

b. Prescriber's Information

c. Subscription

d. Superscription

b. Prescriber's Information

What is an act of taking care of customers’ needs by providing and delivering professional high-quality service and assistance before, during and after customers’ requirements are meet?

a. Adherence

b. Compliance

c. Customer Service

d. Quality Assurance

c. Customer Service

What refers to the license to prescribe (dangerous drugs preparations)?

a. Dangerous Drugs

b. Prohibited Drugs

c. Narcotic Drugs

d. S3 License

e. S2 License

f. S5C-I

e. S2 License

What refers to a license to sell narcotic preparations and controlled substance?

a. Dangerous Drugs

b. Prohibited Drugs

c. Narcotic Drugs

d. S3 License

e. S2 License

f. S5C-I

d. S3 License

What refers to a drug which produces insensibility, stupor, dullness of mind with delusions and which may be habit forming?

a. Dangerous Drugs

b. Prohibited Drugs

c. Narcotic Drugs

d. S3 License

e. S2 License

f. S5C-I

c. Narcotic Drugs

 What substances listed in international conventions as narcotics or psychotropic substances?

a. Dangerous Drugs

b. Prohibited Drugs

c. Narcotic Drugs

d. S3 License

e. S2 License

f. S5C-I

a. Dangerous Drugs

 ____ includes opium and its active components and derivatives, such as heroin and morphine.  

a. Dangerous Drugs

b. Prohibited Drugs

c. Narcotic Drugs

d. S3 License

e. S2 License

f. S5C-I

b. Prohibited Drugs

Signatura includes the following instruction to patient, EXCEPT:

a. Diluents

b. Dose, time, and frequency of administration

c. Method of administration and application

d. Patients’ information

d. Patients’ information

MDRP acronym stands for ____.

a. Maximum Drug Retail Price

b. Minimum Drug Retail Price

c. Mean Drug Retail Price

d. Minimum Dose Retail Price

a. Maximum Drug Retail Price

Which incompatibility occurs when one drug alters the absorption, metabolism, or excretion of another?

a. Physical

b. Pharmacokinetic

c. Chemical

d. Therapeutic

b. Pharmacokinetic

The change in color of nitroglycerin upon light exposure indicates:

a. Physical incompatibility

b. Chemical decomposition

c. Therapeutic incompatibility

d. Complexation

b. Chemical decomposition

A cloudy appearance when amphotericin B is mixed with dextrose solution indicates:

a. Phase separation

b. Cloudiness

c. Liquefaction

d. Gas formation

b. Cloudiness

What is the main cause of phase separation in emulsions?

a. Temperature variation

b. Gas evolution

c. Oxidation

d. Enzyme inhibition

a. Temperature variation

What is the administrative order signed in 1988 which involves the requirement of labelling materials of pharmaceutical products?

a. AO 55

b. AO 56

c. AO 62

d. AO 63

a. AO 55

What is the administrative order signed in 1989 which involves the requirement of prescribing drugs under the RA 6675?

a. AO 55

b. AO 56

c. AO 62

d. AO 63

c. AO 62

What is the administrative order signed in 1989 which involves the requirement of dispensing drugs under the RA 6675?

a. AO 55

b. AO 56

c. AO 62

d. AO 63

d. AO 63

What is the administrative order signed in 1989 which involves the revision of regulations in licensing drug establishments and outlets?

a. AO 55

b. AO 56

c. AO 62

d. AO 63

b. AO 56

What drugs require prescription to be presented upon purchasing?

a. OTC drugs

b. Ethical Drugs

c. Legend Drugs

d. All of the above

e. Both Ethical and Legend Drugs

e. Both Ethical and Legend Drugs

PRESCRIPTION CASE: Generic name precedes the brand name.

a. Erroneous – Dispense but report to nearest DOH facility

b. Violative – Do not dispense and report to nearest DOH Facility

c. Impossible – Do not dispense and report to nearest DOH Facility

d. Correct – Dispense the drug in the prescription

d. Correct – Dispense the drug in the prescription

What interaction is involved in Salbutamol and Lagundi?

a. Pharmacokinetic interaction

b. Physicochemical interaction

c. Pharmacodynamic interaction

d. Pharmaceutical interaction

c. Pharmacodynamic interaction

Which drug interacts with alcohol that causes potentiation effect?

a. Aspirin

b. Sulfonamides

c. Penicillin

d. Cetirizine

d. Cetirizine

What type of ADR is involved in the allergic reaction of a patient to penicillin?

a. Type D

b. Type C

c. Type B

d. Type A

c. Type B

Which drug-drug interaction is involved in Opioids and Naloxone?

a. Synergism

b. Potentiation

c. Addition

d. Antagonism

d. Antagonism

What happens to the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin when taken with aspirin?

a. Increase

b. Decrease

c. Constant

d. None of the above

a. Increase

A pharmacist receives a prescription where the brand name is written above the generic name. Following the Generics Act of 1988, how should this be categorized?

a. Correct

b. Erroneous

c. Impossible

d. Violative

b. Erroneous

Under AO 63, what is the primary responsibility of the pharmacist when presented with a Violative Prescription?

a. Dispense the drug but report the doctor to DOH

b. Do not dispense and refer the patient back to the physician

c. Fill the prescription but warn the patient

d. Keep the prescription and provide a generic alternative

b. Do not dispense and refer the patient back to the physician

A pharmacy wants to legally dispense morphine sulfate tablets. Which specific PDEA license must they possess and maintain?

a. S1

b. S2

c. S3

d. S4

c. S3

In retail pharmacy setting, the Prescription Book must be preserved for how many years from the date of the last entry?

a. 1 year

b. 2 years

c. 3 years

d. 4 years

b. 2 years

Which administrative order specifically outlines the dispensing requirements for drugs under the Generics Act?

a. AO 55

b. AO 56

c. AO 62

d. AO 63

d. AO 63

A patient taking Warfarin begins self-prescribed regimen of Ginseng to boost energy. What is the most critical risk the pharmacist should identify?

a. Increased risk of thrombotic events

b. Increased risk if systemic bleeding

c. Permanent liver damage

d. No interaction occurs

a. Increased risk of thrombotic events

A neonate develops Kernicterus. Which of the following drugs, if administered to the mother late in pregnancy, is most likely responsible?

a. Chloramphenicol

b. Ciprofloxacin

c. Sulfisoxazole

d. Tetracycline

c. Sulfisoxazole

A patient on Theophylline therapy starts taking Cimetidine for acid reflux. The pharmacist notes that Cimetidine is a known enzyme inhibitor. What is the expected outcome?

a. Cimetidine absorption will be blocked

b. Theophylline levels will increase, leading to potential toxicity

c. Theophylline levels will decrease, leading to asthma exacerbation

d. No clinical change will occur

b. Theophylline levels will increase, leading to potential toxicity

A patient develops Aplastic Anemia after a course of Chloramphenicol. This unpredictable, non-dose-related reaction is classified as:

a. Type A

b. Type B

c. Type C

d. Type D

b. Type B

Red Man Syndrome is a common ADR associated with a rapid infusion of:

a. Clindamycin

b. Gentamicin

c. Penicillin G

d. Vancomycin

d. Vancomycin

When mixing Camphor and Methanol, the resulting mixture turns into a liquid at room temperature. This physical incompatibility is called:

a. Deliquescence

b. Eutexia

c. Efflorescence

d. Hygroscopy

b. Eutexia

A pharmacist notices a pink discoloration in a solution of Adrenaline. This is a sign of which chemical reaction?

a. Hydrolysis

b. Oxidation

c. Racemization

d. Reduction

b. Oxidation

The formation of a gel-like mass when Acacia is added to an Iron salt solution is an example of

a. Chemical incompatibility

b. Evolution of gas

c. Physical incompatibility

d. Therapeutic incompatibility

c. Physical incompatibility

Potassium hydroxide pellets absorb enough moisture from the air to eventually dissolve and form a liquid solution. This property is known as

a. Deliquescent

b. Efflorescent

c. Hygroscopic

d. Polymorphic

a. Deliquescent

Which of the following describes a type I hypersensitivity reaction

a. Cell mediated

b. Cytotoxic

c. IgE mediated

d. Immune complex mediated

c. IgE mediated

A physician prescribes Captopril to a pregnant woman, which subsequently causes fetal harm. According to the NCC MERP Index, what category of medication error is this

a. Category A

b. Category B

c. Category C

d. Category I

d. Category I

A nurse almost administered insulin to the wrong patient, but another nurse notices the patient's name does not match medication administration record before the drug is given. Which NCC MERP category best applies

a. Category A

b. Category B

c. Category C

d. Category D

b. Category B

A patient receives one dose of antibiotic at the wrong time. The physician reviews the case and determines that no harm occured and no additional monitoring or intervention was needed. Which category is most appropriate

a. Category B

b. Category C

c. Category D

d. Category E

b. Category C

a patient receives an excessive dose of warfarin. The physician orders additional INR monitoring to confirm that no harm occured. No bleeding develops. Which NCC MERP category best applies

a. Category C

b. Category D

c. Category E

d. Category F

b. Category D

To prevent look alike sound alike errors, which is the correct Tall Man Lettering for two common cardiovascular drugs?

a. DOPamine and DOBUTamine

b. dopAMINE and dobutAMINE

c. DOPAMINE and DOBUTAMINE

d. dopamine and dobutamine

a. DOPamine and DOBUTamine

To prevent look alike sound alike errors, which is the correct Tall Man Lettering for two common dispensed drugs

a. GLIPIzide and glyBURIDE

b. glipiZIDE snd glyBURIDE

c. GLIPIzide and GLYburide

d. glipizide and glyburide

a. GLIPIzide and glyBURIDE

To prevent look alike sound alike errors, which is the correct Tall Man Lettering for two common dispensed drugs

a. prednisoLONE and predniSONE

b. PREDnisolone and PREDnisone

c. predNISOlone and predNISONE

d. prednisolone and prednisone

a. prednisoLONE and predniSONE

If a patient is taking Griseofulvin for a fungal nail infection, what dietary advice should the pharmacist provide to ensure maximum absorption?

a. Take on an empty stomach with water

b. Take with hight fat meal

c. Avoid all dairy products

d. Take only with citrus juices

b. Take with hight fat meal

Physiological Antagonism is best exemplified by the interaction between

a. Epinephrine and Histamine

b. Naloxone and Morphine

c. Protamine Sulfate and Heparin

d. Tetracycline and Antacids

a. Epinephrine and Histamine

A patient presents with a prescription for Gaviscon 1 tab tid pc and hs. When should the patient take this medication

a. Every 3 hours until symptoms resolve at bedtime

b. Three times a day after meals and at bedtime

c. Three times a day before meals and at bedtime

d. Twice a day with meals

b. Three times a day after meals and at bedtime

A patient is diagnosed with Gray Baby Syndrome. This condition is a clinical manifestation of a failure in which metabolic pathway in neonates?

a. Acetylation

b. Glucuronidation

c. Hydrolysis

d. Sulfation

b. Glucuronidation

A patient on Digoxin therapy begins taking St. John's Wort. How should the pharmacist counsel the patient regarding the likely clinical outcome?

a. No action is needed as herbal supplements do not interact with cardiac meds

b. The patient is at risk for therapeutic failure due to decreased serum Digoxin

c. The patient may experience Digoxin toxicity

d. The patient should double the Digoxin dose to compensate

b. The patient is at risk for therapeutic failure due to decreased serum Digoxin

Which of the following drug pairs represent a Pharmacodynamic Antagonism interaction

a. Ciprofloxacin and Dairy products

b. Naloxone and Morphine

c. Tetracycline and Antacids

d. Warfarin and Aspirin

b. Naloxone and Morphine

A physician prescribes Phenytoin for a patient already stabilized on Warfarin. The pharmacist should alert the physician that Phenytoin acts as an Enzyme Inducer which will

a. Decrease the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, increasing the risk of clots

b. Increase the risk of bleeding by inhibiting warfarin metabolism

c. Have no effect on the INR levels

d. Potentiate the protein binding of Warfarin

a. Decrease the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, increasing the risk of clots

A patient develops a Type IV Hypersensitivity reaction. Which clinical scenario best exemplifies this type of Bizarre ADR?

a. Anaphylaxis after Penicillin Injection

b. Contact dermatitis from Poison Ivy

c. Hemolytic anemia from Methyldopa

d. Serum sickness from sulfonamides

b. Contact dermatitis from Poison Ivy

A pharmacist is presented with a prescription for Fentanyl patches. According to Philippine law, which color of the triplicate prescription is given to the patient

a. Blue (RPh)

b. Red (PDEA)

c. White (orig)

d. Yellow (px)

d. Yellow (px)

A prescription is marked with NO SUBSCRIPTION, following the Generics Act, the pharmacist should classify this as

a. Correct

b. Erroneous

c. Impossible

d. Violative

d. Violative

Which license is specifically required for a retail pharmacy to dispense Yellow Prescription drugs

a. S1

b. S2

c. S3

d. S4

c. S3

How many years must a Poison Book be retained in the pharmacy for inspection by the FDA.

a. 1 year

b. 2 years

c. 4 years

d. 5 years

b. 2 years

A patient on Acarbose experience hypoglycemia. Why would treating them with table sugar be ineffective?

a. Acarbose increases the insulin response to sucrose

b. Acarbose inhibits.the alpha-glucosidase enzyme that breaks down sucrose into glucose

c. Acarbose speeds up the excretion of sucrose

d. Sucrose reacts with Acarbose to form a toxic precipitate

b. Acarbose inhibits.the alpha-glucosidase enzyme that breaks down sucrose into glucose

A patient taking Spironolactone is advised to avoid eating excessive amounts of bananas. What us the rationale

a. Bananas cause false positive blood sugar reading

b. Bananas decrease the absorption of Spironolactone

c. Both can lead to life threatening Hyperkalemia

d. Spironolactone causes the patient to develop a banana allergy

c. Both can lead to life threatening Hyperkalemia

Which mathematical formula represents synergism

a. 1+1=2

b. 1+1=3

c. 1+1=0

d. 1+0=1

b. 1+1=3

A patient taking losartan and hydrochlorothiazide buys ibuprofen for body pain. Which interaction should the pharmacist be most concerned about?

a. Acute kidney injury

b. Reduced platelet count

c. Serotonin syndrome

d. Severe hypoglycemia

a. Acute kidney injury

A hypertensive patient regularly takes Amlodipine and self medicates with mefenamic acid for headache. What possible interaction may occur

a. Enhanced antihypertensive effect

b. Increased antibiotic absorption

c. Reduced blood pressure control

d. Severe bradycardia

c. Reduced blood pressure control

A patient stabilized on Warfarin is prescribed metronidazole. What is the most appropriate monitoring parameter?

a. INR

b. Fasting blood sugar

c. Serum uric acid

d. Serum sodium

a. INR