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The primary palate is the fusion of what?
Nasal and maxillary processes
Secondary palate is fusion of what?
Palatine shelves
The incomplete fusion of nasal and maxillary process is what?
Chelioschisis
Incomplete fusion of palatine shelves is what?
Palatoschisis
What are sequelae of palatoschisis?
Starvation and aspiration
Protrusion of the lower jaw is called what?
Prognathia (cavemen are pros)
Protrusion of upper jaw is called what?
Brachygnathia
Anorexia and ptyalism are signs of what?
Stomatitis
What causes viral stomatitis and oral vesicles in the cat?
Feline Calicivirus
What is the vesicobullous autoimmune disease of desmogleins?
Pemphigus vulgaris
What causes progressive, severe inflammation of the mouth in cats, which is a continuum of disease?
Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis
Uremia is associated with what disease?
Chronic renal disease
Uremia leads to an increase in what, which can cause ulcers?
Ammonia
Where are 70% of alimentary tumors?
Oral
What are the odontogenic tumors?
POF/FEPLO and CAA
What is the most common odontogenic tumor?
POF/FEPLO
What odontogenic tumor is pink, expansile, and smooth, but not invasive?
POF/FEPLO
What odontogenic tumor is gray and invasive?
CAA
What benign epithelial tumor occurs in older animals?
Squamous papilloma
What malignant epithelial tumor is invasive, and is the most common oral tumor of cats?
SCC
What mesenchymal tumor affects young dogs and is aggressive?
Fibrosarcoma
What mesenchymal tumor affects the maxillary gingiva of Golden Retrievers?
Maxillary Fibrosarcoma
What is the most common malignant oral tumor in dogs, with frequent metastasis?
Malignant Melanoma
T/F: Melanoma is always pigmented
False
What is the most common non-neoplastic mass?
Gingival Hyperplasia
What do tonsils lack that affect infection?
Afferent lymphatic vessels
Which tonsillar neoplasia is often bilateral?
Lymphoma
What salivary gland disease involves necrosis, regeneration, and squamous metaplasia of ducts?
Necrotizing Sialometaplasia/Salivary Gland Infarction
A cystic saliva filled distension of the salivary duct is called what?
Ranula
A pseudocyst with saliva is called what?
Sialocele
The esophageal motility disorder where sphincters fail to relax is called what?
Achalasia
What disease of young, small breed dogs involves post-weaning dysphagia?
Cricopharyngeal achalasia
What is the hallmark sign of megaesophagus?
Regurgitation after eating
The expulsion of esophageal contents, with gagging and coughing, is what?
Regurgitation
The ejection of stomach and upper intestinal contents, involving abdominal effort, is what?
Vomiting
What is the main cause of congenital megaesophagus?
Persistent right fourth aortic arch
What is the main cause of acquired megaesophagus?
Failure to relax of the distal (cardiac) sphincter
General anesthesia, gastric reflux, and feline calicivirus are all common causes of what?
Esophagitis
Fibroma, fibrosarcoma, and osteosarcoma are neoplasia of the esophagus associated with what?
Spirocerca lupi
What can occur in young puppies after overeating, often due to pyloric obstruction?
Gastric dilation
What life-threatening condition occurs in deep chested dogs and is often seen with lax gastrohepatic ligaments, overfeeding, or postprandial exercise?
Gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV)
What condition involves intestinal twisting, leading to hypoxia?
Volvulus
Which way does the stomach rotate with volvulus?
Stomach rotates clockwise on the ventrodorsal axis when viewed from ventral surface
What is the mechanism that causes death due to pancreatic ischemia?
Myocardial depressant factors lead to arrest
Hematemesis and melena are key clinical signs for what gastric disease?
Ulcers
What tumors are associated with gastric ulcers?
Mast cell and gastrin secreting (zollinger syndrome)
A mineralized stomach is indicative of what disease?
Uremic Gastropathy
Projectile vomiting and gastric dilation, especially in young brachycephalic dogs can be due to what?
Congenital pyloric stenosis
Basenjis, Boxers, and Beagles with diffuse fundic hypertrophy and protein losing gastropathy might have what?
Giant Hypertrophic Gastropathy
What epithelial gastric neoplasia has a scirrhous "napkin ring" lesion?
Adenocarcinoma
What round cell neoplasia affects cats more than dogs?
Lymphoma
Rapid epithelial turnover, mucus, IgA, and GALT are all defense mechanisms of what organ(s)?
Intestines
Occlusion of the intestinal lumen due to development issues is what?
Atresia
Abnormal protrusion of an organ through an opening is what?
Hernia
T/F: Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernias can result in death (especially if you say it three times quickly)
False, peritoneopleural is neonatal death, PP is uneventful
The receiving portion of an intussusception is called what?
Intussuscipiens
Intestine rotating along its long axis, creating an obstruction (typically large animals), is called what?
Torsion
Intestine twisting around itself and the mesentery (common in small animals) is called what?
Volvulus
Infrequent passage of large amounts of fluid feces refers to what diarrhea?
Small bowel
What are the two most important mechanisms of diarrhea in small animals?
Malabsorption and increased permeability
Active loss of electrolytes into the lumen due to inflammation or toxins is what mechanism of diarrhea?
Hypersecretion
Villus atrophy of the small intestine leading to excess osmotic solutes in the lumen is what mechanism of diarrhea?
Malabsorption
Exudative diarrhea due to the retrograde movement of solute and protein rich fluid in the small intestine is classified as what mechanism?
Increased Permeability
Increased rate of peristalsis due to lumen distension is what mechanism of diarrhea?
Hypermotility
Small volume with increased frequency, mucus, and hematochezia describe diarrhea from what portion of the intestines?
Large bowel
Diarrheal feces contains at least what percentage of water?
85%
Viruses cause enterocyte death, leading to diarrhea. What part do Rotavirus and Coronavirus target?
Villi
What virus targets the rapidly dividing crypt cells, leading to villous atrophy?
Parvovirus/Panleukopenia
What is the clinical syndrome that causes malabsorption and PLE due to immune mediated inflammation?
Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)
What is the most common type of IBD?
Lymphoplasmacytic
A brown discoloration of the tunica muscularis indicates what?
Intestinal Ceroidosis
The pathologic dilation of lymphatic vessels (lacteals) is what?
Lymphangiectasia
Lymphangiectasia is the common cause of what two things in dogs?
Malabsorption and PLE
What is the most common intestinal tumor in the cat?
Lymphoma
What benign epithelial tumor is most commonly at the distal rectum in dogs?
Polyp
What is the relatively common malignant epithelial neoplasia in cats that has a "napkin ring" scirrhous reaction?
Adenocarcinoma
What neoplasia causes diffuse thickening, nodules, and transmural infiltration?
Lymphoma
What is the most common type of lymphoma?
T-cell
What is the marker for T cell lymphoma?
CD3 IHC
What is the marker for B cell lymphoma?
CD79a and Pax5 IHC
What is the marker for large granular lymphocyte lymphoma?
Granzyme B IHC
What is the most common type of lymphoma in cats?
Small cell lymphocytic villus lymphoma with a majority of epitheliotropic T-cell (EATL-type 2), like OBVIOUSLY, why'd you even flip this term STOOPID (jk)
What is the highly invasive, metastatic neoplasia of the anal sac in dogs?
AGASACA (no I'm not spelling it out for you)
What biopsy method is less invasive but is limited by access and only superficial samples?
Endoscopic
What biopsy method is more invasive, has full thickness section, and can sample jejunum and ileum?
Exploratory celiotomy
What is the adequate number of biopsies necessary from the intestines?
At least 6, upwards of 10 to 15
Which biopsy method is best for neoplasia?
Full thickness biopsy
What is the best way to estimate changes in liver size postmortem?
Liver/body weight ratio (4% in small animals)
Of the blood supply to the liver, which one makes up a majority of the blood?
Portal vein
What are the specialized membrane regions of hepatocytes?
Sinusoidal with microvilli and canalicular with tight junctions
T/F: Bile flows centrilobular towards the portal triad
True, opposite of blood
Which zone is most susceptible to hypoxia?
Zone three (centrilobular)
Which zone is most susceptible to toxins?
Zone three (centrilobular) due to higher amounts of cytochrome P450
T/F: It takes a 2.0 mg/dL concentration 2 days to cause jaundice
True
Overproduction, decreased uptake/conjugation, and reduced bile outflow are all mechanism of what?
Hyperbilirubinemia
Portal hypertension, due to either liver or heart disease, leads to what major clinical sign?
Ascites (transudate)
Ulcerative skin lesions with Parakeratosis, Epidermal edema, and basal cell Hyperplasia on biopsy is indicative of what disease?
Hepatocutaneous syndrome (French Flag pattern, red, white, and blue)
What is the shortest living clotting factor?
VII (7)
What clotting factor is not produced by the liver?
VIII (8)
T/F: Portal-systemic shunts are a contributor to all cases of hepatic encephalopathy
False