Small Animal GI - Exam 1: What Not to Eat

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Last updated 1:18 PM on 4/20/26
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256 Terms

1
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The primary palate is the fusion of what?

Nasal and maxillary processes

2
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Secondary palate is fusion of what?

Palatine shelves

3
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The incomplete fusion of nasal and maxillary process is what?

Chelioschisis

4
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Incomplete fusion of palatine shelves is what?

Palatoschisis

5
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What are sequelae of palatoschisis?

Starvation and aspiration

6
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Protrusion of the lower jaw is called what?

Prognathia (cavemen are pros)

7
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Protrusion of upper jaw is called what?

Brachygnathia

8
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Anorexia and ptyalism are signs of what?

Stomatitis

9
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What causes viral stomatitis and oral vesicles in the cat?

Feline Calicivirus

10
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What is the vesicobullous autoimmune disease of desmogleins?

Pemphigus vulgaris

11
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What causes progressive, severe inflammation of the mouth in cats, which is a continuum of disease?

Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis

12
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Uremia is associated with what disease?

Chronic renal disease

13
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Uremia leads to an increase in what, which can cause ulcers?

Ammonia

14
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Where are 70% of alimentary tumors?

Oral

15
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What are the odontogenic tumors?

POF/FEPLO and CAA

16
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What is the most common odontogenic tumor?

POF/FEPLO

17
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What odontogenic tumor is pink, expansile, and smooth, but not invasive?

POF/FEPLO

18
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What odontogenic tumor is gray and invasive?

CAA

19
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What benign epithelial tumor occurs in older animals?

Squamous papilloma

20
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What malignant epithelial tumor is invasive, and is the most common oral tumor of cats?

SCC

21
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What mesenchymal tumor affects young dogs and is aggressive?

Fibrosarcoma

22
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What mesenchymal tumor affects the maxillary gingiva of Golden Retrievers?

Maxillary Fibrosarcoma

23
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What is the most common malignant oral tumor in dogs, with frequent metastasis?

Malignant Melanoma

24
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T/F: Melanoma is always pigmented

False

25
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What is the most common non-neoplastic mass?

Gingival Hyperplasia

26
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What do tonsils lack that affect infection?

Afferent lymphatic vessels

27
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Which tonsillar neoplasia is often bilateral?

Lymphoma

28
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What salivary gland disease involves necrosis, regeneration, and squamous metaplasia of ducts?

Necrotizing Sialometaplasia/Salivary Gland Infarction

29
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A cystic saliva filled distension of the salivary duct is called what?

Ranula

30
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A pseudocyst with saliva is called what?

Sialocele

31
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The esophageal motility disorder where sphincters fail to relax is called what?

Achalasia

32
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What disease of young, small breed dogs involves post-weaning dysphagia?

Cricopharyngeal achalasia

33
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What is the hallmark sign of megaesophagus?

Regurgitation after eating

34
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The expulsion of esophageal contents, with gagging and coughing, is what?

Regurgitation

35
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The ejection of stomach and upper intestinal contents, involving abdominal effort, is what?

Vomiting

36
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What is the main cause of congenital megaesophagus?

Persistent right fourth aortic arch

37
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What is the main cause of acquired megaesophagus?

Failure to relax of the distal (cardiac) sphincter

38
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General anesthesia, gastric reflux, and feline calicivirus are all common causes of what?

Esophagitis

39
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Fibroma, fibrosarcoma, and osteosarcoma are neoplasia of the esophagus associated with what?

Spirocerca lupi

40
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What can occur in young puppies after overeating, often due to pyloric obstruction?

Gastric dilation

41
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What life-threatening condition occurs in deep chested dogs and is often seen with lax gastrohepatic ligaments, overfeeding, or postprandial exercise?

Gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV)

42
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What condition involves intestinal twisting, leading to hypoxia?

Volvulus

43
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Which way does the stomach rotate with volvulus?

Stomach rotates clockwise on the ventrodorsal axis when viewed from ventral surface

44
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What is the mechanism that causes death due to pancreatic ischemia?

Myocardial depressant factors lead to arrest

45
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Hematemesis and melena are key clinical signs for what gastric disease?

Ulcers

46
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What tumors are associated with gastric ulcers?

Mast cell and gastrin secreting (zollinger syndrome)

47
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A mineralized stomach is indicative of what disease?

Uremic Gastropathy

48
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Projectile vomiting and gastric dilation, especially in young brachycephalic dogs can be due to what?

Congenital pyloric stenosis

49
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Basenjis, Boxers, and Beagles with diffuse fundic hypertrophy and protein losing gastropathy might have what?

Giant Hypertrophic Gastropathy

50
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What epithelial gastric neoplasia has a scirrhous "napkin ring" lesion?

Adenocarcinoma

51
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What round cell neoplasia affects cats more than dogs?

Lymphoma

52
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Rapid epithelial turnover, mucus, IgA, and GALT are all defense mechanisms of what organ(s)?

Intestines

53
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Occlusion of the intestinal lumen due to development issues is what?

Atresia

54
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Abnormal protrusion of an organ through an opening is what?

Hernia

55
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T/F: Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernias can result in death (especially if you say it three times quickly)

False, peritoneopleural is neonatal death, PP is uneventful

56
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The receiving portion of an intussusception is called what?

Intussuscipiens

57
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Intestine rotating along its long axis, creating an obstruction (typically large animals), is called what?

Torsion

58
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Intestine twisting around itself and the mesentery (common in small animals) is called what?

Volvulus

59
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Infrequent passage of large amounts of fluid feces refers to what diarrhea?

Small bowel

60
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What are the two most important mechanisms of diarrhea in small animals?

Malabsorption and increased permeability

61
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Active loss of electrolytes into the lumen due to inflammation or toxins is what mechanism of diarrhea?

Hypersecretion

62
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Villus atrophy of the small intestine leading to excess osmotic solutes in the lumen is what mechanism of diarrhea?

Malabsorption

63
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Exudative diarrhea due to the retrograde movement of solute and protein rich fluid in the small intestine is classified as what mechanism?

Increased Permeability

64
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Increased rate of peristalsis due to lumen distension is what mechanism of diarrhea?

Hypermotility

65
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Small volume with increased frequency, mucus, and hematochezia describe diarrhea from what portion of the intestines?

Large bowel

66
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Diarrheal feces contains at least what percentage of water?

85%

67
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Viruses cause enterocyte death, leading to diarrhea. What part do Rotavirus and Coronavirus target?

Villi

68
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What virus targets the rapidly dividing crypt cells, leading to villous atrophy?

Parvovirus/Panleukopenia

69
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What is the clinical syndrome that causes malabsorption and PLE due to immune mediated inflammation?

Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)

70
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What is the most common type of IBD?

Lymphoplasmacytic

71
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A brown discoloration of the tunica muscularis indicates what?

Intestinal Ceroidosis

72
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The pathologic dilation of lymphatic vessels (lacteals) is what?

Lymphangiectasia

73
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Lymphangiectasia is the common cause of what two things in dogs?

Malabsorption and PLE

74
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What is the most common intestinal tumor in the cat?

Lymphoma

75
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What benign epithelial tumor is most commonly at the distal rectum in dogs?

Polyp

76
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What is the relatively common malignant epithelial neoplasia in cats that has a "napkin ring" scirrhous reaction?

Adenocarcinoma

77
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What neoplasia causes diffuse thickening, nodules, and transmural infiltration?

Lymphoma

78
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What is the most common type of lymphoma?

T-cell

79
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What is the marker for T cell lymphoma?

CD3 IHC

80
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What is the marker for B cell lymphoma?

CD79a and Pax5 IHC

81
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What is the marker for large granular lymphocyte lymphoma?

Granzyme B IHC

82
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What is the most common type of lymphoma in cats?

Small cell lymphocytic villus lymphoma with a majority of epitheliotropic T-cell (EATL-type 2), like OBVIOUSLY, why'd you even flip this term STOOPID (jk)

83
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What is the highly invasive, metastatic neoplasia of the anal sac in dogs?

AGASACA (no I'm not spelling it out for you)

84
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What biopsy method is less invasive but is limited by access and only superficial samples?

Endoscopic

85
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What biopsy method is more invasive, has full thickness section, and can sample jejunum and ileum?

Exploratory celiotomy

86
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What is the adequate number of biopsies necessary from the intestines?

At least 6, upwards of 10 to 15

87
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Which biopsy method is best for neoplasia?

Full thickness biopsy

88
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What is the best way to estimate changes in liver size postmortem?

Liver/body weight ratio (4% in small animals)

89
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Of the blood supply to the liver, which one makes up a majority of the blood?

Portal vein

90
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What are the specialized membrane regions of hepatocytes?

Sinusoidal with microvilli and canalicular with tight junctions

91
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T/F: Bile flows centrilobular towards the portal triad

True, opposite of blood

92
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Which zone is most susceptible to hypoxia?

Zone three (centrilobular)

93
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Which zone is most susceptible to toxins?

Zone three (centrilobular) due to higher amounts of cytochrome P450

94
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T/F: It takes a 2.0 mg/dL concentration 2 days to cause jaundice

True

95
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Overproduction, decreased uptake/conjugation, and reduced bile outflow are all mechanism of what?

Hyperbilirubinemia

96
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Portal hypertension, due to either liver or heart disease, leads to what major clinical sign?

Ascites (transudate)

97
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Ulcerative skin lesions with Parakeratosis, Epidermal edema, and basal cell Hyperplasia on biopsy is indicative of what disease?

Hepatocutaneous syndrome (French Flag pattern, red, white, and blue)

98
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What is the shortest living clotting factor?

VII (7)

99
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What clotting factor is not produced by the liver?

VIII (8)

100
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T/F: Portal-systemic shunts are a contributor to all cases of hepatic encephalopathy

False