kaap305 ankle, knee, shoulder, head quiz questions

excessive eversion motion, excessive inversion motion, pain

which of the following would indicate a positive talar tilt test?

- anterior displacement of the talus

- excessive eversion moiton

- excessive inversion motion

decreased ROM

- increased motion at tibiofibular joint

- pain

20 degrees

what is normal range for ankle dorsiflexion

distal 6 cm of posterior tibia, distal 6 cm of posterior fibula, base (styloid process) of the 5th metatarsal, navicular

following an ankle sprain, severe pain with palpation along which bony landmarks indicate you should refer for radiographs?

- distal 6 cm of posterior tibia

- distal 6 cm of posterior fibula

- calcaneus

- navicular

- cuboid

- base of the 1st metatarsal

- base (styloid process) of the 5th metatarsal

calcaneofibular ligament

calcaneal fractures are often caused by avulsion of which ankle ligament?

- calcaneonavicular l.

- PTFL

- calcaneofibular L.

- ATFL

retrocalcaneal bursitis, heel contusion

which of the following conditions may be treated with a doughnut heel pad?

- retrocalcaneal bursitis

- arch strain

- heel contusion

- talus fx

- pes planus

navicular

which of the following tarsal bones may "bulge" in patients with pes planus?

- talus

- first metatarsal

- navicular

- cuboid

90%

what % must a patient score less than during ADL section of FAAM (Foot and ankle instability measure) to be diagnosed with chronic ankle instability (CIA)?

- 80

-90

-50

-75

5-10 days

how long is a patient typically non-weight bearing for following a 2nd degree inversion ankle sprain?

- 1-3 days

- >14 days

- 10-14 days

- 5-10 days

tear-drop pad to relieve pressure, change in shoe

A patient arrives to your clinic with severe foot pain, specifically between their third and fourth metatarsal. They describe the pain as "burning". You notice no swelling, deformity or discoloration. Upon your accurate diagnosis, which of the following treatments would you use? (Choose all that apply).

- tear-drop pad to relive pressure

- ice and elevation

- change in shoe

- immobilize for 10 days

- flexibility training

posterior tibialis tendon

which of the following structures can be palpated on the medial ankle?

- anterior tibialis tendon

- posterior tibialis tendon

- fibularis longus tendon

- ATFL

false

true/ false: a special test with high sensitivity would allow you to rule in a condition

anterior drawer test (ankle)

what special test would you choose to evaluate a patient for an anterior talofibular tear?

-anterior drawer test (ankle)

- hyperdorsiflexion test

- thompson's test

- bump test

anterior talofibular ligament

which of the following anatomical structures is tested during an anterior drawer test (at the ankle)?

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

what muscles make up the rotator cuff?

speed's test

what special test would you choose to evaluate a patient for biceps tendinopathy?

sternoclavicular joint sprain- twisting of an extended arm

acromioclavicular joint sprain - direct contact to "tip" of shoulder

labral tears- repetitive stresses, specifically in abduction and extension

thoracic outlet syndrome - compression

glenohumeral dislocation - forced abduction, ER, and extension

match each shoulder injury with the most common MOI

-shoulder injuries: sternoclavicular joint sprain, acromioclavicular joint sprain, labral tears, thoracic outlet syndrome, glenohumeral dislocation

MOIs:

- twisting of an extended arm

- forced abduction, ER, and extension

- direct contact to "tip" of shoulder

- compression

- repetitive stresses, specifically in abduction and extension

biceps brachii m (long head)

which of the following tendons travels through (inside) the glenohumeral joint capsule?

- supraspinatus m

- triceps brachii m. (long head)

- biceps brachii m. (long head)

- biceps brachii m. (short head)

false

T/F: during a shoulder evaluation, the patient should always be seated

empty (full) can test

which special test would you choose to evaluate a patient for a supraspinatus tear?

- empty (full) can test

- sulcus sign

- hawkins (kennedy) test

- neer's test

fall on out stretched hand

what does FOOSH stand for

brachial plexus, subclavian v./ and or subclavian a.

which of the following structures may be involved with thoracic outlet syndrome?

- biceps brachii tendon

- supraspinatus tendon

- brachial plexus

- subclavian v

- subacromial bursae

- subclavian a.

impingement, thoracic outlet syndrome, biceps tendinitis

which of the following injuries would be categorized as overuse (chronic)?

- glenohumeral dislocation

- impingement

- AC joint sprain

- thoracic outlet syndrome

- biceps tendinitis

- clavicle fx

deformity, pain, tenderness, disability

which of the following are common signs and symptoms of a sternoclavicular joint sprain?

- deformity

- pain

- tenderness

- disability

- paresthesia

- GIRD

- "deep" aches

ruling in glenohumeral l. sprains

based on the sensitivity and specificity of sulcus sign, what is the test better at predicting?

- ruling out glenohumeral l. sprains (instability)

- ruling in glenohumeral l. sprains (instability)

o'brien test

which of the following would be used to diagnose a SLAP lesion?

- neer's test

- o'brien test

- military brace position

- sulcus sign

pain, weakness

which of the following indicates a positive empty (full) can test?

- visible depression below the acromion

- pain

- weakness

- clicking and popping

- decreased ROM

tibial tuberosity

on what landmark does the patellar ligament (tendon) insert?

- tibial spine (intercondylar eminence)

- gerdy's tubercle

- lateral tibial condyle

- tibial tuberosity

anterior drawer test (knee)

A 21 year old presents with pain and swelling of their right knee after a twisting injury sustained during a club rugby game last week. They were unable to continue the game and state their knee has felt "unstable" since. You note mild swelling around both femoral condyles. You are short on time and can only preform ONE special test. Which special test would you use to rule in the injury you most likely suspect

- valgus stress test

- posterior drawer (knee)

- varus stress test

- anterior drawer test (knee)

PCL

An ice skater takes a fall on the ice, resulting in hyperflexion of their right knee. They are able to skate off, but complain their knee feels "off". Upon evaluation you note some moderate joint swelling. Following evaluation the patient does not feel comfortable walking without assistance. What structure are you most concerned about?

- ACL

- medial meniscus

- medial (tibial) collateral l.

- PCL

LCL

which of the following ligaments works to prevent varus forces at the knee?

- lateral (fibular) collateral l.

- posterior cruciate l.

- MCL

- ACL

thessaly's test

what special test would you chose to evaluate a patient for a meniscal tear?

- posterior drawer (knee)

- thessaly's test

- lachman's test

- godfrey's 90-90

common fibular nerve compression

After receiving a direct blow to the fibular head, you notice your athlete is walking oddly off the court. Upon further inspection you determine they have severely weakened dorsiflexion, making it appear as though their foot is "dropping" with each step. Which injury do you suspect is most likely causing this deficit in their gait pattern?

- common fibular nerve compression

- MCL tear

- LCL tear

- tibialis anterior m. strain

true

T/F: you should refer a patient for x-rays following their first patellar subluxation/ dislocation

mcl sprain - valgus stress

acl sprain - knee hyperextension and rotation

patellar subluxation - genetic factors

meniscal lesions - weight bearing with rotation

prepatellar bursitis - prolonged kneeling

match the knee injury to the most common mechanism of injury

knee injuries:

- MCL sprain

- ACL sprain

- patellar subluxation

- meniscal lesions

- prepatellar bursitis

MOI:

- prolonged kneeling

- knee hyperextension and rotation

- valgus stress

- blunt force trauma

- repetitive microtraumas

- weight bearing w rotation

- genetic factors

quads

which group of muscles work to produce knee extension

- hamstring

- deep posterior knee mm.

- quads

- pes anserinus mm.

varus stress test

A 17 year old soccer players presents with pain and swelling of their left knee after a direct blow to the inside of their knee. They were unable to continue the game and state their knee has felt "off" since. You note mild swelling around the lateral joint line. Which special test would you use to rule in the injury you most likely suspect?

- godfrey 90-90

- varus stress test

- McMurray's test

- valgus test

quadriceps tendon

which of the following structures can be palpated superior to the patella?

- apex of patella

- quadriceps tendon

- patellar tendon (ligament)

- tibial tuberosity

LCL

your patient is found to have a positive varus stress test. which of the following structures is most likely injured?

- MCL

- lateral meniscus

- medial meniscus

- LCL

0-140

normal range for knee flexion

-45-180

- 0-180

- 45-90

- 0-140

MCL

patient has positive valgus stress test. which of the following structures is most likely injured?

- medial meniscus

- LCL

- lateral meniscus

- MCL

Godfrey's 90/90

what special test would you choose if you wanted to rule in a positive posterior cruciate l. tear with the highest accuracy?

- lachman's test

- mcmurray's test

- posterior drawer test

- godfrey's 90-90

under 13

children under what age should NOT use the traditional SCAT5 but rather the child SCAT?

- under 6

- under 10

- under 13

- under 18

true

True/false: concussion legislative is different in every state

tandem stance; non-dominant leg forward

which of the following is the BEST stance to use during balance testing?

- single leg; eyes closed

- tandem stance; dominant leg forward

- single leg ; eyes open

- tandem stance; non-dominant leg forward

subdural hematoma

which of the following hematomas presents with a delayed onset of signs and symptoms?

- epidural hematoma

- subdural hematoma

- intracranial hematoma

- subarachnoid hematoma

false

true/false: concussions are graded at the time of evaluation from mild to severe (1-3)

pupils equal and reactive to light

what does "PEARL" stand for when assessing the pupils?

sport specific drills

which of the following BEST describes step 3 in the traditional 6 step return to play protocol for head injuries?

- sport specific drills

- return to practice but no contact

- no activity (bed rest)

- return to practice with full contact

50%

what is the mortality rate of second impact syndrome?

-85%

-100%

- 30%

-50%

wrestlers, boxers, rugby players

which of the following athletes are more at risk of suffering an auricular hematoma?

-wrestlers

-boxers

-swimmers

- rugby players

-volleyball players

- hockey players

recovery

what is the objective of rehab stage 1 in the graduated return to play protocol for concussions?

- add movement

- restore confidence

- recovery

- increase HR

SDD, coordination disturbances, memory deficit, slow/slurred speech, blank or vacant state, eye movement irregularities

list 3 things you are looking for during the "observation" component of the head evaluation

sensory

what type of info is carried on CN VIII (vestibulocochlear n)

- motor and sensory

- sensory

- motor

vision

what is the primary function of CN II (optic n.)?

- auditory

-olfactory

- occular motor

- vision

cerebellum, vestibular system

which of the following structures are being evaluated during balance testing after a head injury?

- occipital lobe

- cochlear system

- cerebellum

- ankle ligaments

- vestibular system