Anesthesia vet tech prep power pages

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Last updated 1:29 PM on 5/30/26
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280 Terms

1
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The two most common breathing systems for small animals are

rebreathing and non-rebreathing systems

2
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Breathing systems rely on

the patient's natural ability to breathe in order to function

3
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rebreathers are

circle systems

4
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rebreathers (circle systems) remove ____________ from exhaled gases by ___________________.

carbon dioxide by routing them through a chemical abosrbent.

5
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After the carbon dioxide is removed,

the expired gases are mixed with fresh incoming gas and oxygen to be inhaled by the patient

6
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by rebreathers (circle systems) reusing the expired gases conserves _________ making them economical.

oxygen and anesthtic

7
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rebreathing systems also retain

heat and moisture, promoting patient warmth during the procedure.

8
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The down side to rebreathing systems is

the machine is bulky and complicated.

9
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High resistance to ventilation makes it difficult for smaller animals with a low tidal volume to

move gases through a rebreathing system

10
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non rebreathers

bain systems

11
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non-rebreathers do not

reuse expired gases

12
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non-rebreathers rely on a

high gas flow to flush carbon dioxide into the scavenger system.

13
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non rebreathing systems are appropriate for

small patients with a low tidal volume due to its low resistance to ventilation

14
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the disadvantage to non rebreathers is that

the higher gas flow promotes hypothermia

15
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non rebreathers are expensive to use due to the

high consumption of gases

16
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important checks of anesthetic machines pre procedure

-make sure CO2 absorbent is in date

-vaporizer has plenty of gas

-scavenger system is hooked up

17
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a common problem in anesthetic procedures is a

leak in the system

18
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leaks in anesthetic machines can be found by

a pressure test of the system

19
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leaks in anesthetic machines frequently occur where

the circle tube and reservoir bags are attached.

20
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breathing tubes and bags frequently have to be replaced due to

stress cracks and holes at the connection points

21
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what is the top indication of a anesthetic leak

the smell of anesthetic gas during a procedure

22
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if the vaporizer calibration is off the patient may

become deeply anesthetized or will have a hard time staying anesthetized

23
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One-way valves can become stuck closed, due to

condensation from the patient's expiratory breath. This could cause the patient to breathe unfiltered expired gases

24
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a pressure test indicates if

there are any leaks and if the pop off valve is working properly

25
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pressure test steps

Closing the pop-off valve and occluding the patient end of the breathing circuit.

● The system is then pressurized to 30 cm H2O and the flow meter set at 200 ml/min. The machine is considered leak-free if the pressure on the manometer holds or slowly increases, but if it drops, you have a leak greater than 200 ml/min and it should be found.

26
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to find a leak

listel or feel for it

Leaks can also be found with a surfactant solution. The solution is sprayed on the machine anywhere a leak is suspected and will bubble if one is present

27
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Once the machine is leak free, the pop-off should be

opened to let the pressurized air out of the system. This ensures that the pop-off isn't stuck closed and is working correctly

28
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what are the two times during an anesthetic episode where a patient's state of consciousness is altered

during induction and recovery

29
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During induction, a patient is transferred from a state of

consciousness to unconsciousness

30
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during recovery a patient is transferred from a state of

unconsciousness to consciousness

31
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routes of induction

injectables

inhalants

32
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the preferred method of induction is

injectables it is less stressful due to the fast acting nature of the drugs

33
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you can give injectable induction meds via

intravenous or intramuscular

34
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can you use more than one drug for induction

yes

35
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the downside to injectable agents is that once they are given,

they cannot be controlled and are not immediately eliminated.

36
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Patients induced with inhalants experience a

a prolonged stage two of anesthesia, also known as the "excitement phase."

37
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During stage two of anesthesia, the animal can become

anxious, especially if no premedication is used.

38
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gas induction is a good idea for

animals who are too aggressive to touch or who are very small

39
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inhaled agents can be given 2 ways:

-holding a mask to the animals face

-placing patient in a chamber where they are immersed with the anesthetic

40
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when using an induction chamber to anesthitize, make sure the

chamber is big enough for the patient to lay down with an extended neck

41
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steps to using an induction chamber:

. High oxygen flow rates of 3-5 liters per minute and high gas concentrations of 3-4% for isoflurane and 4-5% for sevoflurane are used to speed up induction. Once the animal appears anesthetized, remove the animal from the chamber and attempt endotracheal intubation. If the patient is not adequately anesthetized to allow for intubation, a mask can be used to administer more anesthetic gas to deepen the anesthetic plane

42
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Mask induction exposes the anesthetist to

less anesthetic than using an induction chamber

43
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steps to using mask induction

, start the vaporizer setting at 0.5% and increase in 0.5% increments every 30 seconds until the patient is sedate, to reduce the animal's stress. Be sure to use the appropriate size mask and diaphragm to reduce the amount of dead space and gas leakage.

44
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berfore deciding anesthetic protocol

take into consideration the animals medical history. . Disposition, concurrent health problems, health status, and reason for anesthesia will aid in deciding the safest and most appropriate anesthetic induction protocol for the patient

45
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Pre-medicating the patient prior to induction will also lessen

the amount of induction drugs needed to sedate the patient.

46
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common injectable induction agents

-propofol

-etomidate

-benzodiazepines: diazepam, midazolam, and zolazepam

-cyclohexamines: ketamine and tiltamine

-barbituates:thiopental and methohexital.

47
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propofol is quickly eliminated from the body by

hepatic and extrahepatic metabolism

48
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what does propofol do to respirations

potentially depresses respirations. May cause apnea after induction

49
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propofol can cause hypotension due to

vasodilation

50
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propofol is

rapid acting

51
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propofol route

IV

52
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does propofol cross the placental barrier

yes but with minimal depressant effects on the fetus

53
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etomidate is

rapid acting

54
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why can inductions on etomidate be rough

because it produces a hypnotic-like state that doesn't completely sedate the patient.

55
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etomadine is eliminated by

hepatic metabolism

56
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why can administration of etomidate be painful

the propylene glycol carrier

57
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etomadine doesnt affect the

cardiovascular system

58
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does etomidate cross the placental barrier

yes but has minimal depressant effects on the fetus

59
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etomidate routes

IV

60
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most common benzodiazepines used for induction

diazapam

midazolam

zolazepam

61
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Benzodiazepines

reduce anxiety and provide skeletal muscle relaxation

62
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Benzodiazepines are always given with another induction agent because

e they do not provide sedation and may cause excitement ex) often given with ketamine

63
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diazepam is not

water soluble

64
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diazepam can only be mixed in a syringe with

ketamine because it is not water soluble

65
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diazepam contains __________ which can be

propylene glycol, which can be irritating to tissues and causes the drug to have an unreliable absorption rate when given intramuscularly.

66
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what is the benzodiazepine part in the combination drug telazol

zolazepam

67
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Benzodiazepines routes

IV and IM

68
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The two most common cyclohexamines used for induction are

ketamine and tiletamine

69
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what do cyclohexamines do to the central nervous system

stimulate unlike most induction agents who suppress it

70
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cyclohexamines produce

muscle rigidity and sensitivity to light, sound, and touch. These effects can be reduced by using other drugs in combination with cyclohexamines.

71
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cyclohexamines increase

heart rate, blood pressure, intraoccular pressure

72
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cyclohexamines are not reccomended for patients with

ocular disease

73
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recovery on cyclohexamines can be rough because

patients tend to become dysphoric

74
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in the dog ketamine is metabolized by

the liver

75
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in the cat ketamine is metabolized in the

kidneys

76
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tiletamine is metabolized

via the kidneys in cats and dogs

77
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what is the cylcohexamine part of the combination drug telazol

tiletamine

78
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cyclohexamines route

IV or IM

79
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The two most common barbiturates used for induction are

thiopental and methohexital

80
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barbiturates have a

rapid onset of action

81
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barbituates cause

respiratory and cardiovascular depression

82
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barbiturates are metabolized

hepatically and extra hepatically

83
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barbiturates distributes to ________ so use caution in

lipid areas of the body so use caution in lean animals. Less body fat will produce more pronounced CNS depression

84
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barbiturates are contradicted in patients with

hypoproteinemia, acidosis, or hypothermia.

85
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thiopental has a

cumulative effect with repeated doses

86
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methohexital does not

have a cumulative effect and does not redistribute into highly lipid tissues as heavily as thiopental does

87
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After induction, the animal is

intubated with an endotracheal tube (even if maintenance with a gas anesthetic is not in the plan

88
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An endotracheal tube will prevent

the aspiration of foreign material into the lungs

89
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an endotracheal tube provides an

effective way to deliver oxygen to the patient and allow for intratracheal drugs

90
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Before intubating, the patient should be

pre-oxygenated with 100% oxygen and the endotracheal tube's inflatable cuff should be checked for leaks

91
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before intubating measure the endotracheal cuff by

placing the tube against the animals throat with the cuffed end just caudal to the thoracic inlet, to ensure adequate length.

92
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to intubate once the animal is positioned by the assistant,

Place the laryngoscope blade on the tongue, just before the epiglottis, and apply downward pressure to expose the tracheal opening. Slide the endotracheal tube past the arytenoids into the trachea.

93
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once the endotracheal tube is placed,

Attach the breathing circuit and turn on the gas.

94
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the last stage of the anesthetic epsidode is

recovery

95
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during recovery, anesthetic agents are discontinued and the patient

returns to a conscious state

96
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when ready to recover, stop anesthetic gas and "flush it out" by

oxygen rate is increased to four liters for ten minutes to "wash out" inhalant anesthetic from the machine and patient.

97
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the best position for recovery is _________ because

sternal recumbency with the animal's head propped up in a natural position to maintain a proper airway and reverse any positional atelectasis.

However, this isn't always possible due to the location of the surgical site or type of surgery. If sternal recovery isn't possible, the patient should be placed in a comfortable position without putting any pressure on surgical incisions

98
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leave the IV catheters in place until

a couple hours after the procedure incase complications arise

99
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the recovery period should be

in a pre warmed cage wit bedding and the patient should not be left alone

100
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hypothermia increases during

recovery time