Microbiology Program Quizzes

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Last updated 12:53 AM on 5/19/26
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132 Terms

1
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Which of the following is a feature unique to prokaryotic cells?

A. they have a cell wall

B. they have circular DNA

C. they are unicellular organisms

D. they lack ribosomes

B. they have circular DNA

2
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What characteristic makes ager a useful culture medium?

A. it is lipid at room temperature

B. it is resistant to contamination by fungi

C. it cannot be digested by most microorganisms

D. it both melts and solidifies at 100 degrees C

C. it cannot be digested by most microorganisms

3
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Who first used pure cultures to establish the cause of microbial diseases?

A. Robert Koch

B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

C. Joseph Lister

D. Louis Pasteur

A. Robert Koch

4
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Which of the following contains LPS (lipopolysaccharides), which forms the basis of endotoxins?

A. both gram-positive and gram-negative cells

B. gram-positive cells

C. gram-negative cells

D. fungi

C. gram-negative cells

5
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Bacilli can be described as having what shape?

A. spherical

B. spiral

C. spring

D. rod

D. rod

6
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Which two bacteria genera are spore-forming?

A. Bacillus and Clostridium

B. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

C. Neisseria and Mycobacteria

D. Escherichia and Salmonella

A. Bacillus and Clostridium

7
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Which of the following describes a plasmid?

A. it is an extrachromosomal DNA for antibiotic resistance

B. it is a single stranded extrachromosomal RNA for toxin resistance

C. it is an extrachromosomal DNA for heat resistance

D. it is a single-stranded DNA for dehydration resistance

A. it is an extrachromosomal DNA for antibiotic resistance

8
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Which of the following bacterial structures is MOST involved in adherence?

A. capsule

B. lipopolysaccharide

C. ordinary pili

D. O-specific side-chain

C. ordinary pili

9
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All of the following procedures are useful for the diagnosis of fungal infection EXCEPT which?

A. serology test

B. gram stain test

C. direct microscopic examination

D. culture fungi on Sabouraud's ager

B. gram stain test

10
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Why are gram-negative bacteria more resistant to antimicrobial agents (compared with gram-positive bacteria)?

A. the peptidoglycan layer in gram-negative bacteria is thicker

B. there is an outer membrane

C. all medically important gram-negative bacteria form endospores

D. a capsule forms a physical barrier in all gram-negative bacteria

B. there is an outer membrane

11
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Which of the following stains is considered differential?

A. capsule stain

B. crystal violet

C. malachite green

D. acid-fast stain

D. acid-fast stain

12
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If a process kills 90% of the organisms per minute, how many minutes would it take to kill all organisms when starting with 10,000 organisms?

A. 5 minutes

B. 6 minutes

C. 4 minutes

D. 3 minutes

A. 5 minutes

13
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Koch's postulates are used for which of the following purposes?

A. To determine if a given organism causes the given disease

B. to determine if the given organism is a bacterium or a fungus

C. to determine an organism's growth requirements

D. to determine if a given organism will produce an immune response

A. To determine if a given organism causes the given disease

14
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Why would a flagellated strain be more virulent than a nonflagellated strain?

A. flagella can kill the white blood cells

B. flagella allow the bacteria to negotiate in the mucus layers protecting body surfaces

C. flagella give metabolic advantage to the bacterium

D. flagella are major adhesive structures

B. flagella allow the bacteria to negotiate in the mucus layers protecting body surfaces

15
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What is the type of virus replication where the virus remains dormant in the host cell called?

A. Lytic cycle

B. Lysogenic cycle

C. Abortive infection

D. Subclinical infection

B. Lysogenic cycle

16
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Bacterial cells reproduce by what mechanism?

A. spore formation

B. binary fission

C. sexual reproduction

D. fusion

B. binary fission

17
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Which of the following best describes a capsomer?

A. a viral inclusion body

B. the lipid envelope

C. a protein spike

D. part of a viral capsid

D. part of a viral capsid

18
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Which of the following is characterized by possessing a thick layer of peptidoglycan?

A. all bacteria

B. all viruses

C. gram-positive bacteria

D. gram-negative bacteria

C. gram-positive bacteria

19
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A 27-year-old man went to the hospital for a deep laceration on his foot that he received during his construction job. He received a shot for a specific type of organism. This organism is classified as which of the following?

A. gram-positive cocci, ferments lactose

B. gram-positive rod, anaerobic, and spore forming

C. gram-negative bacilli, aerobic, and spore forming

D. it is difficult to stain with gram stain

B. gram-positive rod, anaerobic, and spore forming

20
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Acute rheumatic fever is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following organisms?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Enterococcus faecalis

D. Salmonella typhi

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

21
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Following a barbecue hosted by a hunter who served "pork hamburgers", several guests developed abdominal pain and diarrhea. Their condition progresses about a week later to fever, myalgia, and periorbital edema. Blood analysis shows an increased eosinophil count. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Anthrax

B. Botulism

C. Escherichia coli gastroenteritis

D. Trichinosis

D. Trichinosis

22
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All of the following agents cause opportunistic infection in AIDS patients except for:

A. Candida

B. cytomegalovirus

C. Plasmodium

D. Mycobacterium avium-intercellular

C. Plasmodium

23
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Negri bodies are the major pathological changes seen in which disease?

A. rabies

B. bronchiolitis

C. croup

D. AIDS

A. rabies

24
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A "slapped cheek" rash in children is characteristic of which disease?

A. papillomavirus

B. measles virus

C. chickenpox

D. parvovirus B19

D. parvovirus B19

25
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A 31-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is found to have a positive serologic test for syphilis (VDRL test). She denies having had sexual contact with a partner who had symptoms of a venereal disease. What would be the next best step to confirm a venereal syphilitic disease?

A. reassure her that the test is a false-positive reaction for autoimmune disease

B. trace her sexual contact for serological testing

C. refer her to a physician to prescribe tetracycline as an antibiotic

D. perform a fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test

D. perform a fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test

26
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Which is NOT an organism that is transmitted by larva or cercaria that penetrates the skin?

A. Ancylostoma duodenale

B. Strongyloides stercoralis

C. Wuchereria bancrofti

D. Schistosoma haematobium

C. Wuchereria bancrofti

27
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Poliovirus replicates in and causes damage to which of the following structures?

A. sensory neuron (dorsal horn of the spinal cord)

B. motor neuron (anterior or ventral horn of the spinal cord)

C. skeletal muscle fibers

D. cardiac muscle fibers

B. motor neuron (anterior or ventral horn of the spinal cord)

28
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Which of the following organisms does NOT cross the placental barrier and cause congenital defects in humans?

A. cytomegalovirus

B. Toxoplasma gondii

C. rubella virus

D. herpes simplex virus, type 2

D. herpes simplex virus, type 2

29
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What is the most commonly reported tick-borne disease seen in the United States?

A. AIDS

B. Lyme disease

C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

D. syphilis

B. Lyme disease

30
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Neisseria meningitidis uses which of the following virulence factors to survive its passage from the blood to the meninges?

A. flagellum

B. pilus

C. pyrogenic exotoxin

D. polysaccharide capsule

D. polysaccharide capsule

31
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Which of the following has been implicated in hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

A. Salmonella typhi

B. Escherichia coli

C. Salmonella enteritidis

D. Vibrio cholerae

B. Escherichia coli

32
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The acid-fast stain is used to identify which of the following types of microorganism?

A. genus Treponema

B. genus Mycoplasma

C. genus Mycobacterium

D. genus Corynebacterium

C. genus Mycobacterium

33
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Which of the following has been implicated in peptic ulcer disease?

A. Mycobacterium

B. Listeria

C. Helicobacter

D. Corynebacterium

C. Helicobacter

34
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Which virus is most characterized by a bullet-shaped capsid?

A. Ebola

B. influenza

C. rabies

D. measles

C. rabies

35
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Which of the following is the causative agent of genital herpes?

A. bacterium

B. fungus

C. virus

D. parasitic worm

C. virus

36
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In cases of meningitis, in which age group is Neisseria meningitidis most often implicated?

A. newborns

B. 3 years to six years

C. young adults, college age

D. older adults, elderly

C. young adults, college age

37
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The most common cause of skin lesions such as boils or abscesses is which of the following bacteria?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Bacillus cereus

D. Listeria monocytogenes

B. Staphylococcus aureus

38
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Which of the following water borne enteric diseases is characterized by massive amounts of fluids passed in the feces?

A. salmonellosis

B. cholera

C. hepatitis A

D. E. coli enteritis

B. cholera

39
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Which of the following describes the typical appearance of sputum in the patients with pneumonia due to Klebsiella pneumoniae?

A. sputum is purulent and rusty color

B. sputum is thin and watery

C. sputum is bloody and gelatinous

D. scant amount of sputum

C. sputum is bloody and gelatinous

40
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If a patient is complaining of chest pain, fever, dry cough, and some confusion and has diarrhea and abdominal pain, which of the following organisms is most likely to be the pathogen?

A. Bordetella pertussis

B. Legionella pneumophila

C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Legionella pneumophila

41
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Antigenic drift seen in influenza is responsible for which of the following epidemiologic phenomenon?

A. a patient who had suffered from influenza previously has partial immunity to the new influenza virus

B. a patient who had suffered from influenza previously has no immunity against the new influenza virus

C. a patient who had suffered from influenza previously has a booster effect to his or her immunity

D. there is no effect on the immunity of a previously infected patient

A. a patient who had suffered from influenza previously has partial immunity to the new influenza virus

42
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Which of the following fungi cause granulomas in the lung that are mistaken for tuberculosis?

A. Histoplasma capsulatum

B. Blastomyces dermatitidis

C. Coccidioides immitis

D. Pneumocystis carinii

A. Histoplasma capsulatum

43
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Which of the following could cause hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A. enterohemorrhagic E. coli

B. enteroaggregative E. coli

C. enteropathogenic E. coli

D. enterotoxigenic E. coli

A. enterohemorrhagic E. coli

44
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Which of the following is one of the characteristics of food intoxication due to preformed toxins?

A. very long incubation period

B. very short incubation period

C. live bacteria must be ingested in the food

D. only cold foods are involved in transmitting this disease

B. very short incubation period

45
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In which of the following tissues would the larvae of Trichinella spiralis be commonly found?

A. striated muscle

B. brain

C. bones

D. lungs

A. striated muscle

46
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In which of the parasitic infections does the filariform larvae directly penetrate through the skin to infect a new host?

A. common round worm

B. whipworm

C. hookworm

D. thread worm

C. hookworm

47
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Which of the following causes Whitlow, a lesion commonly seen on the fingers of nurses?

A. papillomavirus

B. adenovirus

C. herpes simplex

D. rubella

C. herpes simplex

48
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Which of the following causes erythema infectiosum?

A. measles virus

B. varicella zoster virus

C. parvovirus B19

D. herpes virus type 6

C. parvovirus B19

49
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What is the etiologic agent that causes a patient to have a high fever, malaise, and either pneumonia or painful, swollen lymph nodes called "bubos"?

A. Yersinia pestis

B. Shigella sonneri

C. Yersinia enterocolitica

D. Vibrio cholerae

A. Yersinia pestis

50
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Which of the following diseases is NOT one of the childhood exanthems?

A. measles

B. mumps

C. rubella

D. rubeola

B. mumps

51
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Pertussis can be a serious life-threatening disease due to what bacterial effect on the respiratory system?

A. swelling of the epiglottis

B. formation of a pseudomembrane

C. destruction of the mucociliary action of the respiratory epithelium

D. pneumonia

C. destruction of the mucociliary action of the respiratory epithelium

52
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Which type of virus possesses a double-stranded RNA and a double capsid?

A. reovirus

B. flavivirus

C. retrovirus

D. alphavirus

A. reovirus

53
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Trypanosoma cruzi causes which of the following diseases?

A. African sleeping sickness

B. toxoplasmosis

C. Chagas disease

D. leishmania

C. Chagas disease

54
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Tinea unguium is a fungal infection of what part of the body?

A. scalp

B. between the toes

C. nails

D. groin

C. nails

55
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Which of the following is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive, facultative anaerobe?

A. Escherichia coli

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Haemophilus influenzae

D. Haemophilus influenzae

56
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A patient complains of diarrhea, abdominal pain, and flatulence shortly after returning from a rafting trip in Canada. He admits drinking water from the streams. With what flagellate protozoan is he most likely infected?

A. Giardia lamblia

B. Toxoplasmosis gondii

C. Entamoeba histolytica

D. Leishmania donovani

A. Giardia lamblia

57
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Which term refers to an "infection that is acquired in a hospital"?

A. zoonosis

B. fomite

C. nosocomial

D. septicemia

C. nosocomial

58
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Filaria parasites are transmitted by what means?

A. ingestion

B. arthropod bite

C. sexual contact

D. penetration through the skin

B. arthropod bite

59
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A patient presents with a high fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes. Which infectious disease do the signs and symptoms BEST characterize?

A. fifth disease

B. shingles

C. parainfluenza

D. infectious mononucleosis

D. infectious mononucleosis

60
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Which virus is currently the only poxvirus that causes disease in humans, which appears as papules and nodules on the skin?

A. variola major

B. vaccinia

C. poxvirus of molluscum contagiosum

D. varicella zoster

C. poxvirus of molluscum contagiosum

61
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Which of the following is NOT a causative agent of the common cold?

A. adenovirus

B. rhinovirus

C. coronavirus

D. hantavirus

D. hantavirus

62
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Pharyngitis with a diffuse erythematous rash appearing on the head and extremities and the appearance of a "strawberry tongue" is descriptive of what disease?

A. scarlet fever

B. rheumatic fever

C. pyoderma

D. toxic shock syndrome

A. scarlet fever

63
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Which correctly describes the appearance of Staphylococcus under the microscope?

A. gram-negative cocci in clusters

B. gram-positive cocci in clusters

C. gram-negative cocci in short chains

D. gram-positive cocci in short chains

B. gram-positive cocci in clusters

64
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Bacteria are often cultured on blood agar to detect the presence of hemolytic cytotoxins. What type of hemolysis is beta-hemolysis?

A. no hemolysis is detected

B. incomplete hemolysis on blood agar

C. complete hemolysis

D. irregular hemolysis

C. complete hemolysis

65
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When Staphylococcus aureus enters the blood and is carried to the bone, it causes an infection given what name?

A. osteonecrosis

B. osteopenia

C. osteolysis

D. osteomyelitis

D. osteomyelitis

66
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Which food-borne disease is MOST associated with home canning?

A. botulism

B. cholera

C. listerosis

D. typhoid fever

A. botulism

67
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The Mantoux test is used to detect prior infection by which agent?

A. Clostridium difficile

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C. Mycobacterium leprae

D. Cornybacterium diphtheriae

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

68
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Select the TRUE statement concerning rabies.

A. the incubation phase is very short; approximately 2 to 10 days

B. it is caused by a coronavirus

C. it is an encephalitis with neuron degeneration

D. it is a spongiform encephalitis caused by a prion

C. it is an encephalitis with neuron degeneration

69
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A finding of gram-positive encapsulated diplococci in sputum is indicative of what organism?

A. Escherichia coli

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

70
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What term is defined as a "symbiotic relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected'?

A. commensalism

B. parasitism

C. mutualism

D. antagonism

A. commensalism

71
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In human beings, the most common habitat of Staphylococcus aureus is the:

A. throat

B. urethra

C. skin

D. nasal chamber

D. nasal chamber

72
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What clinical sign can usually diagnose many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract?

A. type of rash

B. type of cough

C. type of fever

D. incubation period

A. type of rash

73
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Otitis media and sinusitis are usually preceded by what infection?

A. middle ear infection

B. infection with Pseudomonas

C. nasopharyngeal infection

D. lower respiratory tract infection

C. nasopharyngeal infection

74
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In adults, about 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization are caused by what organism?

A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Klebsiella pneumonia

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

75
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During which stage of syphilis is the patient noninfectious?

A. first stage (primary syphilis)

B. second stage (secondary syphilis)

C. third stage (tertiary syphilis)

D. fourth stage (quaternary syphilis)

C. third stage (tertiary syphilis)

76
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When epidemics of bacterial meningitis occur, they usually involve which organism?

A. Neisseria meningitidis

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Haemophilus influenzae

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A. Neisseria meningitidis

77
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What is the most common etiological agent(s) causing subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. normal skin or mouth flora

D. Escherichia coli

C. normal skin or mouth flora

78
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Symptoms of AIDS appear when

A. CD4 counts are <300/ul of blood

B. CD4 counts are >900/ul of blood

C. CDS counts are >1000/ul of blood

D. CD8 counts are <700/ul of blood

A. CD4 counts are <300/ul of blood

79
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Which of the following is the most effective way to sterilize heat-sensitive liquids?

A. autoclave

B. filtration

C. iodine

D. freezing

B. filtration

80
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Which term is defined as the "spread of disease from parent to offspring"?

A. nosocomial transmission

B. horizontal transmission

C. vertical transmission

D. vector transmission

C. vertical transmission

81
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Which of the following is NOT a communicable infectious disease?

A. chickenpox

B. tetanus

C. hepatitis B

D. influenza

B. tetanus

82
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Which precautions would be appropriate to prevent the spread of tuberculosis from an infected patient?

A. gowns and gloves are necessary

B. proper disposal of urine- or feces-contaminated items

C. wear masks and disinfect items contaminated with saliva

D. no special precautions are warranted

C. wear masks and disinfect items contaminated with saliva

83
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Which of the following epidemiologic terms is defined as the "ratio between the number of new cases of a disease divided by the number of healthy individuals in a population"?

A. incidence

B. prevalence

C. morbidity rate

D. mortality rate

A. incidence

84
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A disease that occurs with relative regularity only in the southwestern United States would be described as having what type of disease occurrence?

A. pandemic

B. epidemic

C. sporadic

D. endemic

D. endemic

85
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In 2003, the first cases of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) were reported in Asia. Soon, many cases were reported from four continents. How would this spread of SARS be classified?

A. an outbreak

B. an epidemic

C. sporadic cases

D. a pandemic

D. a pandemic

86
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Which is a term that refers to a disease that is primarily an infection of animals and is accidentally transmitted to humans?

A. sporadic

B. secondary infection

C. zoonosis

D. reservoir

C. zoonosis

87
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A patient you treated in the morning has influenza, a viral illness caused by an enveloped RNA virus. Which of the following methods of infection control should you use for your adjusting table?

A. sterilization

B. pasteurization

C. high-level disinfectant

D. intermediate-level disinfectant

D. intermediate-level disinfectant

88
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Which of the following terms describes an epidemiological study where exposed and non-exposed populations are identified and followed over time?

A. cohort study

B. case-control study

C. descriptive study

D. cross-sectional study

A. cohort study

89
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Which of the following rates is calculated by dividing all current cases of a disease (old and new) by the total population?

A. incidence rate

B. prevalence rate

C. attack rate

D. case-fatality rate

B. prevalence rate

90
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The term used to describe the occurrence of a disease in a geographic area all the time is:

A. epidemic

B. pandemic

C. epizoodemic

D. endemic

D. endemic

91
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The number of new cases of a specific disease within a specific time period in a given population is called the:

A. prevalence

B. epidemic

C. mortality rate

D. incidence

D. incidence

92
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The single most important measure to prevent the spread of infectious diseases is:

A. handwashing

B. proper cooking

C. canning

D. pasteurization

A. handwashing

93
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The period of time between exposure to an infectious agent and the onset of disease signs and symptoms is called the:

A. prodromal period

B. incubation period

C. acute phase

D. chronic phase

B. incubation period

94
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Eating undercooked pork is associated with an increased risk of infection with which of the following?

A. Trichinella

B. Escherichia

C. Salmonella

D. Staphylococcus

A. Trichinella

95
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Which of the following is TRUE of botulism?

A. it is a viral infection

B. it is spread by mosquitoes

C. it is sexually transmitted

D. it is caused by a toxin

D. it is caused by a toxin

96
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What is the major cause of death in the United States?

A. respiratory infections

B. enteric disease

C. lifestyle conditions

D. lack of prenatal care

C. lifestyle conditions

97
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Indicator organisms are used in water testing for the purpose of detecting which of the following?

A. fecal contamination

B. turbidity levels

C. presence of absence of chemicals

D. offensive odors

A. fecal contamination

98
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Which of the following does NOT describe ground-level ozone?

A. contributes to smog formation

B. protects the earth from UV radiation

C. involves sulfur dioxide reactions

D. involves nitrogen oxide reactions

B. protects the earth from UV radiation

99
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Which of the following causes anthracosis?

A. anthrax

B. asbestos

C. silica

D. coal dust

D. coal dust

100
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Water that contains harmful chemicals is called:

A. contaminated water

B. polluted water

C. potable water

D. deionized water

B. polluted water