ER Exam 1 - Wound etc, Environmental, Endocrine + Hem, Back Pain

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Last updated 7:21 PM on 5/27/26
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247 Terms

1
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these bugs may cause infection in dorsal hand lacerations

staph

strep

corynebacterium

Eikenella

2
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what antibiotic should be given for an infected dorsal hand laceration?

outpatient abx treatment?

Unasyn 3 grams IV

Augmentin 875mg BID

3
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treatment of tendon lacerations

consult hand specialist (distal wrist to MCP)

defer all flexion and thumb tendon injuries (we can do extension injuries)

figure 8 knot

open lac = operative repair

closed lac = splint ± operative repair

4
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suture size for LE

4-0 or larger

5
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you should always document ______________ test when evaluating LE injuries

thompson

6
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when to remove FB in laceration

potential for infection, toxicity, functional problems, persistent pain

7
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removal of wood splinter

tend to break off, so make longitudinal incision over splinter

8
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what is the preferred closure method for a laceration with a foreign body?

clean and irrigate, close only if low risk for infection

tertiary intention

9
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what puncture wounds can receive low pressure irrigation?

uncomplicated clean punctures less than 6 hours old

10
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what is the most common causative agent of infection with puncture wounds?

staph aureus (usually plantar)

11
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abx choice for high risk (bites, plantar) puncture wound

cipro, cephalexin

12
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infected puncture wounds should be evaluated via what to look for FB or boney destruction?

x-ray

13
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what should the management be for high pressure puncture wounds?

- parenteral narcotics for pain

- consult hand surgeon (early surgical debridement)

(digital block contraindicated)

14
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what bugs infect human bite wounds?

Eikenella, staph, strep

15
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what should the initial treatment be for human bites causing lacerations?

copious irrigation + left open and prophylactic abx (Augmentin)

(give Unasyn if infected upon presentation)

16
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what is the treatment for dog bites?

- x-ray (for boney involvement or FB)

- copious irrigation

- primary closure (unless on feet or hands)

- antibiotics (Augmentin or clinda or cipro - infection tends to be polymicrobial)

17
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what is the treatment for cat bites?

- x-ray (for boney involvement or FB)

- copious irrigation

- closure if >2cm

- antibiotics (Augmentin or cefuroxime or doxy)

18
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bacteria common in cat bite

pasteruella multocida

19
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components of procedure note

clinical setting

procedure name

indication

contraindications

consent

anesthesia

description

findings

complications

NO H&P or plan or follow up

20
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soft tissue injury resulting from prolonged exposure to nonfreezing cold and moisture

foot pale, mottled, pulseless and numb

(will not improve quickly with rewarming; will also be painful after rewarming x 2-3 days)

trench foot

21
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<p>painful inflammatory lesions typically affecting ears, hands, and feet from chronic exposure to intermittent damp conditions</p><p>localized edema, erythema and cyanosis appearing up to 12 hours after exposure + itching and burning paresthesia</p>

painful inflammatory lesions typically affecting ears, hands, and feet from chronic exposure to intermittent damp conditions

localized edema, erythema and cyanosis appearing up to 12 hours after exposure + itching and burning paresthesia

chillblains

22
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what is the treatment for trenchfoot and chillblains?

- elevation, warming and bandaging

- nifedipine (20 mg TID)

- pentoxifylline (400 mg TID)

23
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freezing of tissue that presents with stinging, burning, and numbness

frostbite

24
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how is frostbite classified?

by depth of injury and appearance after rewarming

25
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<p>what degree of frostbite is this describing?</p><p>partial thickness skin freezing</p><p>erythema, edema and LACK of blistering</p>

what degree of frostbite is this describing?

partial thickness skin freezing

erythema, edema and LACK of blistering

1st degree (frostnip)

26
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what degree of frostbite is this describing?

freezing of skin and subdermal plexus

hemorrhagic bullae and skin necrosis

3rd degree

27
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what degree of frostbite is this describing?

deeper skin freezing

formation of clear bullae, numbness followed by aching and throbbing

2nd degree

28
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what degree of frostbite is this describing?

extends deeper into muscle, tendon and bone

mottled skin, nonblanching cyanosis with eventual dry black mummified eschar formation

4th degree

29
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what is the treatment for frostbite?

- rapid re-warming in circulating water (20-30 min @ 37-39 C)

- topical aloe vera

- pain management

- local wound care

- splint and elevate extremity

- tetanus

30
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hypothermia is defined as body temperature of less than ______

35 C (95 F)

31
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what are some sxs/s of hypothermia?

shivering, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension (mild)

confusion, lethargy, loss of pupillary reflex, bronchorrhea

(all vitals decrease linearly)

32
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what should the workup be for those with hypothermia?

- rectal temperature

- expose pt and remove all clothing

- CBC, BMP, TSH, Lactic acid, clotting

- CXR (looking for infection or aspiration)

- EKG

- routine labs

33
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what are some EKG findings that may be present for hypothermia?

prolongation of PR, QRS, and QT segments

Osborn or J waves

34
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what is the treatment for hypothermia?

- ABCs (ACLS as required)

- gentle rewarming (avoid aggressive rubbing and friction - arrhythmia risk)

- admit if symptomatic or secondary to underlying disease

(pharm therapies ineffective below 30-32 degrees C)

35
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self limited edema in initial exposure to warmth

heat edema

36
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blockage of sweat pores

pruritic erythematous rash

prickly heat (heat rash)

37
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decrease vasomotor tone and peripheral blood pooling in the poorly acclimatized patient

heat syncope

38
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painful cramps in heavily exercised skeletal muscle

treat with fluid replacement with oral electrolyte or IV normal saline

heat cramps

39
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what are the cardinal symptoms/features of heat stroke?

hyperthermia (>40ºC), altered mental status, anhidrosis, seizure

40
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what is the treatment for heat emergencies?

- ABCs

- cool pt down (many methods)

- ICU admissions (most likely)

41
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what is the general local reaction of bites and stings?

pain, erythema, edema, pruritus

42
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what type of insect can cause a sterile pustule that evolves over 6-24 hours and possible cause necrosis and scarring?

fire ant

43
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direct venom effect with GI disturbances and bronchospasm

toxic reaction

44
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would a reaction to a insect bite or sting be worse in severity when the reaction comes on quicker or more delayed?

quicker

45
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what symptoms can a pt experience during a delayed reaction from an insect bite or sting?

fever, malaise, HA, urticaria, lymphadenopathy, polyarthritis

46
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what is the treatment for reactant insect bites and stings?

- remove stinger by scraping

- ice and elevation

- oral antihistamines

- epinephrine .3mg IM

- EpiPen for home and allergist appointment

- admit if severe, >100 stings, extremes of age

47
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<p>Hx: target lesion after a "pinprick feeling"</p><p>induration, erythema, blistering</p>

Hx: target lesion after a "pinprick feeling"

induration, erythema, blistering

black widow bite

48
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what is the treatment for spider bites?

supportive

49
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what insect bite causes immediate pain and paresthesia with a positive "tap test"? what is the treatment?

scorpion (bark scorpion produces toxicity)

antivenom, resolves 24-48 hours without antivenom

50
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<p>what insect bite causes intense pruritus with burrows concentrated on web spaces, fingers, and toes?</p>

what insect bite causes intense pruritus with burrows concentrated on web spaces, fingers, and toes?

scabies

51
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what is the treatment for scabies?

elimite (permethrin) cream (from neck down)

or

ivermectin PO

52
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what is the treatment for bed bug bites?

local wound care, topical steroids, oral antihistamines

53
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_________ is the most common diving affliction and is caused by the direct mechanical effects of pressure

barotrauma

54
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a medical condition that results from pressure changes that occur when a person descends in water or ascends in altitude

dysbarism

55
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this results from breathing compressed air for excessive depth and time while diving

causes excessive bubble formation in tissue and circulation causing acute occlusive and delayed inflammatory response

decompression sickness (DCS)

56
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what is the treatment for decompression sickness?

high flow oxygen and IV fluids

immediate need for hyperbaric oxygen

57
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death from laryngospasm and hypoxemia without aspiration

dry drowning

58
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survival following asphyxia due to submerging

near drowning

59
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indicators of poor prognosis following near drowning

compromised NV or CV status - CPR required at some point

60
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what assessment should be done for a patient with a "near drowning"?

- ABCs (100% O2, CPAP or intubation)

- assess GCS and O2 sat.

- routine blood work (ABG)

- EKG

- CXR + cervical films

61
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what is disposition largely based on for a near drowning?

GCS score and O2

admit also if associated injury or comorbid condition requiring additional testing or monitoring

(if score >13 and O2 >95% they can be observed for 4-6 hours, then send home)

62
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what type of injury from a burn increases the risk of death, and is very important to evaluate for?

inhalation injury

larger burn, female, older

63
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<p>what type of burn is this describing?</p><p>red painful skin without blistering</p><p>only epidermis</p>

what type of burn is this describing?

red painful skin without blistering

only epidermis

superficial (1st degree)

64
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<p>what type of burn is this describing?</p><p>blistering of skin and exposed dermis is red and moist and very painful </p>

what type of burn is this describing?

blistering of skin and exposed dermis is red and moist and very painful

superficial partial thickness (2nd degree)

65
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<p>what type of burn is this describing?</p><p>+- blisters; exposed dermis is pale white/yellow</p><p>no cap refill and absent pain sensation (parts more superficial are still painful)</p>

what type of burn is this describing?

+- blisters; exposed dermis is pale white/yellow

no cap refill and absent pain sensation (parts more superficial are still painful)

deep partial thickness (2nd degree)

66
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<p>what type of burn is this describing?</p><p>waxy, leathery and lifeless, +- charring</p><p>death of all skin layers, including sweat glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings</p>

what type of burn is this describing?

waxy, leathery and lifeless, +- charring

death of all skin layers, including sweat glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings

full thickness (3rd degree)

67
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<p>what type of burn is this describing?</p><p>charring present</p><p>epidermis, dermis, subQ, muscle, and sometimes bone involvement</p>

what type of burn is this describing?

charring present

epidermis, dermis, subQ, muscle, and sometimes bone involvement

4th degree

68
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what are some clinical indications of an inhalation injury?

facial burns, singed nasal hair, soot in upper airway, hoarseness, wheezing

69
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when estimating burn size adults what percent of the body is the chest?

18

70
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when estimating burn size adults, what percent of the body is each arm (front and back)?

9

71
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when estimating burn size in adults, what percent of the body is the back?

18

72
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when estimating burn size in adults, what percent of the body is the perineum?

1

73
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when estimating burn size in adults, what percent of the body is the whole head?

9

74
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when estimating burn size in adults, what percent of the body is each leg (front and back)?

18

75
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what is the treatment/management of a burn patient?

(ABCs)

airway - faicial burns, wheezing, stridor

breathing - 100% O2

circulation - aggressive IV fluids (Parkland formula)

- apply cool compresses as needed (no more than 10%)

- keep patient warm

- sedation and analgesics

- foley catheter

76
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T/F you should apply ice to burns

FALSE - never

77
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what is the Parkland Burn formula and how is it given?

4 mL x kg x %BSA burned

half in the first 8 hours and other half in 16 hours

(make sure to measure output as well)

78
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an incision made into the necrotic tissue resulting from a severe burn (especially if circumferential)

may be necessary in chest to support breathing

escharotomy

79
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what labs and diagnostics should be ordered for thermal injuries?

ABG w/ carboxyhemoglobin level, CBC, BMP, CXR

80
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what are some treatment options for minor burns?

silvadene (avoid on face can stain) or bacitracin or triple antibiotic ointment

81
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what is the outpatient management for less severe burns?

- cool areas

- cleanse wound

- debride larger or ruptured blisters

- dress with non-adherent dressing

- keep covered from sun

82
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what is the minimal urine output that a burn patient should have?

0.5 mL/kg/hour

83
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when are burn victims sent to a hospital with a specialty burn unit?

3rd degree

<10 or >50

chemical

inhalation

comorbid

trauma like fx

hospital poorly equipped

long term rehab needed

84
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what is the treatment for chemical burns?

decontamination prior to examination

water

85
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what is the treatment for chemical burns from sodium, potassium, calcium, or lithium?

mineral oil (not water in these circumstances)

86
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do alkaline or acidic burns penetrate deeper?

alkaline

87
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AC electricity (standard household electricity) causes _________

DC (ex: lightning) causes ___________

tetany, fibrillation (AC more life threatening)

instant muscle contraction, asystole

88
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what is the treatment for electrical/lightning injuries?

- ABCs

- myoglobin level/CK level

- EKG

89
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treatment high voltage injuries

deep burns may require amputation

acts like crush injury - rhabdomyolysis

fasciotomies

escharotomies

fluid resuscitation

90
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what should the work-up be for lightening injuries?

- EKG

- check for rhabdo

- eye and ear injury

91
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Distinctive feathering marking found on lightning strike victims

Lichtenberg figure

92
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is cardiac monitoring/other testing indicated in a healthy person that has been tasered?

no (likelihood of electrical injury is very low)

93
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Hx of exposure to gas heat, smoke inhalation, acidosis or coma

flu-like symptoms to coma

carbon monoxide poisoning

94
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this is an important lab to measure for carbon monoxide poisoining

COHb (carboxyhemoglobin)

95
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what is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?

highest concentration O2 available

96
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what are the clinical features of hypoglycemia?

sweating, shakiness, anxiety, nausea, dizziness, confusion, slurred speech, blurred vision, HA, lethargy

97
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how can the diagnosis of hypoglycemia be made?

low blood sugar (<50-60) and symptomatic

98
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what is the treatment for hypoglycemia with altered mental status?

50% dextrose 50 mL IV

may need continuous infusion of 5% dectrose to keep glucose >100 (i.e. they took a long acting sulfonylurea)

99
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what is the treatment for hypoglycemia if no IV access?

1 mg glucagon (IM or SQ)

100
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what is the treatment for hypoglycemia that is sulfonylurea induced?

treat as usual

if not responding, give octreotide