micro lab final

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Last updated 3:08 PM on 4/22/26
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171 Terms

1
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if it ends in -ase it is a …

enzyme

2
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if it ends in -ose it is a ….

sugar

3
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what are proteins

long polymers composed of amino acid subunits

4
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what do amino acids consist of

carbon bound by amino/nitrogen-containing group (NH2)

hydrogen

carboxyl group (COOH)

Variable R group

5
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amino acids within the protein are connected by what

peptide bonds

6
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how do you break a peptide bond

hydrolysis

enzyme must use water

OH added to carboyxyl

H added back to amino

7
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once peptide bonds are hydrolyzed, what happens

amino acids can be broken down and used as carbon and energy sources

or reused in anabolic reactions

8
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what is deamination

remove amino group of amino acid

amino group converted to ammonia/urea type

pH lowered- acidic conditions

9
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what is decarbonation

removal of carboxyl group form amino acid

pH is raised

10
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name 2 amino acids that contain sulfur in the R-Groups

cysteine and methionine

11
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what is the purpose of the gelatin hydrolysis test

to differentiate between organisms that produce the exoenzyme gelatinase

12
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what does a positive result for gelatin hydrolysis test look like

remains a liquid at room temp

13
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how to prevent a false positive in gelatin hydrolysis test

chilling the tubes prior to recording result

14
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what is the urea broth test for

determining if microorganism produces urease

15
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exoenzyme that hydrolyzes urea

urease

16
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what is a positive result in urea broth test

hot pink color

17
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what species is referred to as a rapid urease positive

proteus species

18
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what is a reagent in the phenylalanine slant

ferric chloride

19
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what is the end product in a phenylalanine slant

phenylpyruvic acid

20
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what is the enzyme in the phenylalanine slant

phenylalanine deaminase

21
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what is a positive result for the phenylalanine slant

orangish yellow to green

22
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what is the ornithine decarboxylase differential for

gram negative enteric bacilli

23
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ornithine decarboxylase tests for what enzyme

ornithine decarboxylase

24
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what is a positive result for ornithine decarboxylase test

yellow to purple/grey

25
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how to do/read a ornithine decarboxylase test

transfer 200ul of bacteria into broth

overlay tube with mineral oil

incubate

observe lower half for color change

growth must be present for analysis

26
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What does SIM agar deep test for

sulfur, indole, motility

27
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what is IMViC

indole production, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, citrate utilization

used to differentiate enteric bacteria

28
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what does sulfur reduction look like in SIM deep

black precipitate

29
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in the SIM deep indole production is a result of the breakdown of what amino acid

tryptophan

30
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what reagent must be added to SIM deep indole test

Kovac’s reagent

31
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what is a positive test in SIM deep indole production

cherry red ring

32
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In the SIM deep what is a positive result for motility

growth outward from the initial stab line

33
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Oxidation Vs Reduction

O- removal of electrons

R- Gain of electrons

34
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what is ATP

energy source for all living organisms

35
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what is aerobic respiration

Metabolism occurs in the presence of oxygen

36
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what is anaerobic respiration

metabolism occurs in the absence of oxygen

37
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what is facultative respiration

metabolism occurs in both the presence and absence of oxygen

38
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what are the terminal/final electron acceptors for aerobic and anaerobic respiration

aerobic- Oxygen- yields most ATP

anerobic- CO2, sulfate, nitrate

39
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oxidative vs fermentative

O- oxygen required

F- oxygen not required

40
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Toxic byproduct examples

superoxide

hydrogen peroxide

hydroxyl

41
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what are reactive oxygen Intermediates (ROI)

Damage DNA and results in accumulation of mutations that are detrimental

42
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what are obligate aerobes

bacteria that require oxygen for growth

43
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what are obligations anaerobes

bacteria that will only grow in the absence of oxygen

44
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what are microaerophiles

organisms that require a limited amount of oxygen to grow

7-10% oxygen

45
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what are aerotolerant anaerobes

cannot use oxygen for growth but are not killed by it

produce catalase and can detoxify ROI’s

46
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what are facultative anaerobes

grow best with oxygen but can live without it

47
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what does a positive thioglycolate broth result for aerobes look like

only growth in the top portion of tube

48
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what does a positive thioglycolate broth result for obligate anaerobes

growth only at the bottom of the tube

49
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what does a positive thioglycolate broth result for microaerophiles

seen towards the top of the tube but below the surface

50
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what does a positive thioglycolate broth result for facultative anaerobes

growth throughout tube and cloudy at top

51
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what does a positive thioglycolate broth result for aerotolerant anaerobes

middle of the tube to bottom mainly, cloudy near bottom

52
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explain how a GasPak works

in a sealed plastic bag you have your plate, a catalyst pack, and a wet paper

the pack contains a palladium catalyst that in the presence of water will produce CO2&H

H will combine with water to form more water until there is no more oxygen present

This creates an anaerobic environment

53
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what is the oxidative test for

to see if the organism is capable of aerobic respiration/ if cytochrome oxidase is present

54
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what is the reagent in oxidase test

chromogenic reducing agent

55
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what is a positive result of oxidase test

dark blue when oxidized

56
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when can a false positive result in the oxidase test occur

reading test after 30 seconds

using a non clear oxidase reagent

57
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what does the catalase test fo

enzyme catalase

58
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what is a positive result in catalase test

bubbles

59
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reagent in catalase test

hydrogen peroxide

60
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what does a nitrate broth test for

if an organism can reduce nitrate (NO3) to nitrite (NO2) to ammonia (NH3)

61
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what are the reagents in the nitrate reduction test

Nitrate reagent A

Nitrate reagent B

Zinc dust

62
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what is the enzyme in nitrate reduction test

nitrate reductase

63
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Inoculation protocol for nitrate reduction test

using P200 pipet transfer 200uL of organism into nitrate broth

64
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protocol for adding reagents to nitrate broth

after incubation add 5 drops of nitrate reagent A and 5 of B

finger vortex

wait two min and if no color yet add a very small dusting of zinc using tweezers

65
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positive result for nitrate reduction test

red color- 2 reagents

not red- zinc dust

66
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do feces cause disease

no indicator organisms do

67
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what are coliforms

indicator organisms most frequently used in water quality assessment

68
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characteristics of coliforms

aerobic or facultative anaerobes

gram -, rod-shaped bacteria

ferment lactose

not usually pathogens

indicates fecal contamination

69
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what are the 3 stages of coliform testing

presumptive test

confirmed test

determination of # of coliforms

70
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what is the presumptive test for coliforms

most probable number method

71
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presumptive test positive result

red to yellow color change in the presence of bubbles

72
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confirmation test uses what agar

MUG agar

73
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what is the MUG agar differential for

GUD enzyme

74
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what is a positive result for confirmation test

fluorescent compound visible in UV light

75
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what other media can be used for a confirmation test

EMB agar

76
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what is most probable number

the ratio of the number of lactose fermentative tubes giving a positive result

77
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what is multiple tube technique

series of dilutions

3 test tubes - 10ml, 1ml, .1ml

10ml tube has 2x strength

78
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EPA recommendations for standard drinking water

less than 1 colony per 100ml

79
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EPA recommendations for domestic water supply

2000 colonies per 100ml

80
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EPA recommendations for fishing/boating

1000 colonies per 100ml

81
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EPA recommendations for body contact recreation

100 colonies per 100ml

82
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sources of food contamination

improper handling and preparation

or food-processing and distribution errors

83
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common sources of infection

Bacillus cereus,

Shigella,

Cyclospora (protist),

Cryptosporidium (protist)

84
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3 basic media types

selective- prevents growth of unwanted bacteria

enriched- for fastidious organisms

differential- contains factors some bacteria can change in a recognizable way

85
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techniques to test for food contamination

evaluated for coliforms

standard plate count- serial dilution + spread plating

86
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why is 5-second rule a myth

bacteria transfer to food instantaneously upon contact, regardless of time

87
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what is SS agar selective/differential for

enteric pathogenic bacilli

S- Bile salts and dyes, inhibit gram + and most gram-

D- Lactose (neutral red), Sodium thiosulfate and Ferric citrate (black centers)

88
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colony morphology and results for ss agar plates

colorless or red colonies with possible black centers

89
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what is EMB agar selective and differential for

S- eosin and methylene blue dyes inhibit gram +

D- Lactose fermentation (pink +) (colorless -), strong acid production - greenish sheen

90
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what is MSA selective and differential for

S- Gram + (staphylococcus spp) halophiles

D- presence of mannitol (S. aurous), acid production (yellow)

91
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sterile

Completely void of any viable organism; both inside and outside

92
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Bacteriostatic

Methods used simply to inhibit and minimize growth amounts

93
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Bactericidal

Methods to completely eradicate viable cells

94
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what is important to consider in heat sensitivity

type of object/product

95
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mechanism for heat sensitivity

– coagulation of proteins

– accumulation of free radicals (DNA damage)

96
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what is heat sensitivity used for

Sterilization of glassware, etc. (things that tolerate high heat without damage)

97
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drawback of heat sensitivity

• slower penetration or heat transfer

• not suitable for all materials - some will melt or degrade

Certain plastics will degrade and crumble after so many rounds of high heat

98
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Psychrophilic

0°C – 15°C

99
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Mesophilic:

20°C – 40°C

100
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Thermophilic:

45°C – 65°C