X-Ray Final

what are the two main divisions of the skeletal system?

Axial = skull, spine, ribs. Appendicular = arms, legs, shoulder girdle, pelvic girdle.

4 bone types?

Long = arms, legs. Short = wrists, ankles. Flat = skull, ribs. Irregular = vertebrae, pelvis.

Levels of anatomical organization

Chemical → cellular → tissue → organ → organ system → organism.
Explanation: Smallest to largest body organization.

Which plane divides the body into equal left and right halves?

Midsagittal plane

Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

Answer: Coronal plane.

The radius and ulna are distal to what bone?

The humerus

In an AP forearm, what surface contacts the IR?

Posterior

The femur is classified as what type of bone?

long bone

How many organ systems are in the human body?

11 organ systems

What attaches muscle to bone?

tendons

What attaches bone to bone?

Ligaments

What's the purpose of a side marker?

To identify the correct side of anatomy

How many bones are in the hand and wrist?

27 bones.
Explanation: 8 carpals + 5 metacarpals + 14 phalanges.

Carpals are classified as what type of bone?

Short bones

In anatomical position, the 5th finger is ______ to the 2nd finger.

medial

What bones make up the shoulder girdle?

Clavicle and scapula

The olecranon process is part of what bone?

Ulna

In a lateral hand position, which metacarpal contacts the IR?

5th metacarpal (pinky rests on IR)

PA Hand - which plane is parallel?

Coronal, palmar surface in contact with IR

Why is the thumb considered an oblique position naturally?

Because the thumb lies at an angle to the hand.
Explanation: Thumb rotates away from fingers naturally.

For a true lateral elbow, what must be in the same plane?

Shoulder, elbow, and wrist.
Explanation: Prevents rotation/distortion.

The patella is classified as what type of bone?

A sesamoid bone (a bone embedded directly in a muscle/tissue)

What bones form the knee joint?

Femur, tibia, and patella

What does MTP stand for?

Metatarsophalangeal joint

What is the superior border of the pelvis called?

Iliac crest

The 5th metatarsal is ______ to the 1st metatarsal.

Lateral

In a lateral tib-fib, what surface contacts the IR?

Lateral

Where is the CR centered for an AP knee?

½ inch distal to the patellar apex.

The greater trochanter is part of what bone?

Femur

In an AP pelvis, the legs’ sagittal planes are ______ to the IR.

Perpendicular

In an AP knee, the midsagittal plane is ______ to the IR.

Perpendicular

What method demonstrates the patella?

Settagast method.

The lateral malleolus is part of what bone?

Fibula - outer ankle bump.

How many movable vertebrae are in the spine?

24 vertebrae.
Explanation: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar.

Names for C1 and C2

C1 is ATLAS, C2 is AXIS

Lumbar vertebrae are classified as what type of bone?

Irregular

Where is the vertebral foramen located?

Between vertebral body and vertebral arch.
Explanation: Spinal cord passes through.

What SID is commonly used for lateral cervical spine?

72 inches

Which spine projection often uses breathing technique?

Lateral thoratic spine - Explanation: Blurs ribs/lung markings.

The iliac crest corresponds to what vertebral level?

L4-L5

In a lateral lumbar spine, what plane is parallel to the IR?

Coronal plane

Which SI joint is demonstrated in an LPO position?

Right side (LPO, pt lays on back, right side elevated)

What is the normal thoracic curvature called?

Kyphotic

What is the most posterior vertebral structure?

Spinous process.
Explanation: Part of spine that pokes out of back.

What is the inferior portion of the sternum called?

Xiphoid process, most distal part of sternum

How many lobes are in the lungs?

Right lung = 3, left lung = 2.
Explanation: Heart occupies left side space.

How many pairs of true ribs are there?

7 pairs

What muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities?

Diaphragm.

Ribs are classified as what type of bone?

Flat bones.
Explanation: Thin protective bones.

Why is a PA Chest taken at 72 SID?

To reduce heart magnification.
Explanation: Longer distance decreases distortion.

How many posterior ribs should be visible on a good inspiration chest x-ray?

10 posterior ribs

What does KUB stand for?

Kidney, uterers, bladder.

Which position demonstrates the left posterior ribs?

LPO position.
Explanation: Posterior ribs closer to IR.

Which position demonstrates the right anterior ribs?

Right anterior oblique
Explanation: Anterior ribs closer to IR.

What suture joins the parietal bones?

Sagittal suture

Facial bones are ______ to the cranium.

Anterior and inferior.
Explanation: Face is in front/lower.

What bone contains the EAM?

Temporal bone (ear opening)

What bone contains the foramen magnum?

Occipital bone (large opening for spinal cord)

Facial bones are mostly classified as what type?

Irregular bones

In a PA Caldwell, the sagittal plane is…?

Perpendicular, skull against IR.

What projection best demonstrates the sinuses?

Parietoacanthial (waters) view

Why are bilateral lateral nasal bones performed? Caldwell??

To evaluate both sides for fractures.
Explanation: Nasal bones are thin/superimposed.

Where does the CR enter for a lateral skull?

2 inches superior to the EAM.
Explanation: Standard skull centering.

What CR angle is used for a PA axial Caldwell?

15-degree Cadual tilt (down, face into IR)

What age is neonatal?

Birth to 1 month

Approximately what percent of communication is nonverbal?

70%

Which age group commonly shows exaggerated modesty?

adolescents

When can a parent assist in holding a pediatric patient?

If not pregnant and properly shielded.

What is a disadvantage of the Octostop?

It does not completely immobilize motion.

Purpose of the Pigg-O-Stat

Immobilizing infants and young children upright.

Why are pediatric patients more radiosensitive?

Rapidly dividing cells are more sensitive.

What is the quickest pediatric technique method?

piggo stat / measure thickness

What is a greenstick fracture?

Partial/incomplete fracture

What is the best way to reduce motion?

immobilization & short exposure time

When should gonadal shielding be used?

When gonads are within 2 inches of beam.

What disease causes bones to become porous?

Osteoporosis

What does excessive mAs cause?

Image too dark.

Increasing field size increases what?

Scatter radiation.
Explanation: More tissue irradiated.

How many collimation borders should be visible?

Four borders.

How far should light field extend beyond anatomy?

No more than 1 inch.
Explanation: Limits unnecessary exposure.

What repeat rate is generally acceptable?

About 5%

Images are viewed as though the patient is doing what?

facing you in an anatomical position

What technique change is often needed for pneumonia?

Increasing KVP

Where should the marker be placed on a lateral projection?

Anteriorly

HIPAA

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
Explanation: Protects patient privacy.

Assault and battery are what type of tort?

intentional

Images are commonly retained for how many years?

5 years

What does validating a patient mean?

Acknowledging their feelings

Angry family members are often experiencing what?

Fear / Anxiety

What is orthostatic hypotension?

Drop in B/P when standing. Can lead to dizziness/falls.

What commonly causes patient falls during transfers?

Unlocked wheelchair

What are pathogens?

Disease-causing microorganisms.
Explanation: Bacteria, viruses, etc.

What is a fomite?

Answer: An object that spreads infection. (doorknob, light switch, sink)

What is a major occupational exposure risk?

Needlestick injury

What is the best defense against disease transmission?

Handwashing

What precautions are used with all patients?

Standard precations

What is dyspnea?

Difficulty breathing.

What is tachycardia?

High heart rate.

What is fibrillation?

Ineffective quivering heartbeat.
Explanation: Dangerous cardiac rhythm.

What is an open fracture?

A bone broken through the skin.