GCD 3022 - Final

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Last updated 5:05 PM on 5/7/26
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174 Terms

1
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Which mutation would cause the most deleterious (harmful) phenotypic consequence?

nonsense

2
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A mutation within the 5'-UTR of an mRNA may result in what? Explain

no translation of the mRNA, as ribosomes may not bind to it; the 5'-UTR contains specific sequences that are required for the initiation of translation.

3
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A down promoter mutation causes the promoter of a gene to be (                    ) like the consensus sequence and (                         ) transcription.

less, inhibits

4
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A (                         ) mutation changes a mutant allele back to a wild-type allele.

reverse

5
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Which of the following mutations appropriately describes an example of a position effect?

  • Chromosomal translocation decreases gene expression. 

  • A point mutation in an enhancer decreases the rate of transcription

  • A mutation in a gene's promoter decreases gene transcription.

  • A mutation at 3’ splice site of an intron generates an altered mature RNA.

Chromosomal translocation decreases gene expression. 

6
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What is a position effect?

when a gene is left intact but its expression may be altered because of its new location

7
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Which mutation(s) affect base substitutions?

missense, silent, nonsense

8
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Which mutation(s) affect base additions/deletion?

frameshift

9
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What would happen if a mutation affects the promoter/enhancer?

gene transcription may increase/decrease

10
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What would happen if a mutation affects the 5’-UTR?

it may influence the ability of mRNA translation

11
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What would happen if a mutation affects the 3’-UTR?

mRNA stability may be altered

12
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What would happen if a mutation affects splice sites?

some exons may not be included, or introns may be included in mRNA

13
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What is a forward mutation?

changes the wild-type genotype into some new variation

14
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What is a wild-type genotype?

the relatively prevelant genotype

15
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True or false: genes with multiple alleles may have no more than two wild-types

false

16
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What is a reverse mutation?

changes a mutant allele back to the wild-type

17
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What is a point mutation?

base substitution where there is a change in a single base pair

18
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What is transition?

a change of a pyrimidine (C/T) to another pyrimidine or a purine (A/G) into another purine

19
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What is transversion?

a change of a pyrimidine to a purine + vice versa

20
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True or false; transitions are less common than transversions

false

21
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What are silent mutations?

base substitutions that do not alter the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide (the last base is changed)

22
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What likely effect would a silent mutation have on protein function?

none (neutral)

23
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What are missense mutations?

base substitutions in which an amino acid change occurs (1st or 2nd base pair is changed)

24
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How many amino acids are altered with missense mutations?

1

25
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What likely effect would a missense mutation have on protein function?

Depends (can be neutral or inhibitory)

26
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What are framshift mutations?

base additions/deletions of a number of nucleotides that is not divisible by 3

27
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How many amino acids are altered with frameshift mutations?

Many

28
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What likely effect would a frameshift mutation have on protein function?

negative

29
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What are nonsense mutations?

base substitutions that change a normal codon to a stop codon

30
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What likely effect would a nonsense mutation have on protein function?

negative

31
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How many amino acids are altered with nonsense mutations?

many

32
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What are germ line cells?

cells that give rise to gametes (sperm/egg)

33
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What are germ line mutations?

mutations that occur directly in a sperm/egg

34
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What do spontaneous mutations result in?

abnormalities in cellular/bio processes; underlying causes originate within the cell (e.g., errors in DNA replication)

35
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What are the 3 causes of spontaneous mutations?

depurination, deamination, oxidative damage

36
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What is depurination?

the removal of a purine (A/G) from the DNA to form an AP site

37
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Can AP sites be repaired? How?

yes, base excision repair

38
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What is deamination of cytosine?

removal of an amino acid group from the cytosine base; C becomes U

39
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Why can DNA repair enzymes easily recognize and remove U but not T after deamination of C?

U is not an appropriate base in DNA whereas T naturally exists in DNA

40
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What is deamination of 5mC?

removal of an amino acid group of methylated cytosine; 5mC becomes T

41
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What is oxidative stress?

an imbalance between the production of ROS and an organism’s ability to break them down

42
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What is ROS?

reactive oxygen species (molecules incuding free radicals) produced by aerobic organisms

43
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What happens if there is oxidation of G?

G can be converted to 8-oxoG to pair with A during replication

44
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What are induced mutations?

chemical or physical mutations caused by environmental agents

45
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What are mutagens?

agents known to alter DNA structure

46
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True or false: mutagens can be chemical or physical

true

47
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What are the 3 types of chemical mutagens?

base modifiers, intercalating agents, base analogues

48
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What do base modifiers do?

covalently modify base structure/disrupt pairing by alkylating bases

49
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What do intercalating agents do?

directly interfere with replication process

50
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What do base analgoues do?

incorporate flat planar structures into double helix DNA and disrupt structure

51
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What type of mutation might occur if intercalating agents are replicated?

frameshift

52
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What effect does EMS have?

alkylate G to pair it with T instead of C as a result of base modifying agents; changes just one base pair

53
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What effect does proflavin have?

causes frameshift mutation; changes multiple base pairs

54
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What effect does 5BU have?

incorporates into DNA to replace T; it can pair with purines (A/G)

55
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What are 2 main types of physical agents?

UV and x-ray

56
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What does UV induce?

T (pyrimidine) dimers; causes base subs

57
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What does x-ray induce?

DNA double strand breaks; causes chromosome aberrations

58
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What is mutation rate?

the likelihood that a gene will be altered by a new mutation

59
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What is the mutation frequency?

# mutant genes / total genes

60
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What is a key difference between mutation rate vs frequency?

rate = new mutations, frequency = all mutations

61
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What are the 2 types of direct repair?

photolyase and alkyltransferase

62
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What does photolyase do?

fix thymine dimer in bacteria

63
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What does alkylktransferase do?

fix O6-alkylguanine (caused by EMS/other agents)

64
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What does base excision repair do?

removes U (or other damaged bases - limited) and fix AP sites due to depurination

65
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What does nucleotide excision repair do?

fix T dimer and bulky lesions + other DNA damage (broad range)

66
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What type of cancer is caused by defects in NER?

skin cancer

67
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What does mismatch repair do?

fix base mismatches after DNA replication

68
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What type of cancer can defects in mismatch repair cause?

colon cancer

69
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How can DNA double strand breaks be fixed in bacteria?

homologous recombination repair (HRR)

70
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When is direct repair used?

fix O6-alkylguanine from EMS or T dimers from UV

71
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What enzymes are involved in base excision repair?

DNA N-glycosylases

72
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What do DNA N-glycosylases do?

recognize an abnormal base and cleave the bond between it and the sugar in the DNA

73
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Which abnormal bases can DNA N-glycosylases eliminate?

U, 3mA, 7mG

74
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How do you fix DNA double stranded breaks humans?

NHEJ or HRR

75
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What is NHEJ?

error-prone repair system that recognizes double strand breaks by end-binding proteins to form a crossbridge

76
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Which phase(s) of the cell cycle does NHEJ function in?

G1

77
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Which phase(s) of the cell cycle does HRR function in for eukaryotes?

S and G2

78
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What is HRR?

error-free repair system that uses sister chromatids as a template to synthesize DNA and close the gap in double stranded breaks

79
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Do HRR and NHEJ occur in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

no; NHEJ is only eukaryotes

80
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What are DNA double-strand breaks?

the breakage of chromosomes into pieces caused by ionizing radiation/chemical mutagens or ROS; they cause chromosomal rearrangements and deficiencies

81
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What is TLS?

translesion synthesis polymerases that are enzymes which can bypass/replicate through DNA lesions to repair damaged DNA

82
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What is a negative effect of TLS?

low fidelity (error prone)

83
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What are mutations?

heritable changes in genetic material

84
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What is cancer?

uncontrollable cell division

85
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What are oncogenes?

a dominant/over expressed mutant gene that contributes to cancerous growth

86
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What are proto-oncogenes?

normal celluar genes that can be mutated into an oncogene; its expression becomes abnormally active

87
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True or false: oncogenes are an example of loss-of-function mutations

false

88
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How do oncogenes occur?

  • increased amount of coded protein

  • overly active coded protein

  • abnormally expressed coded protein

89
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What do growth factors do?

bind to cell surface receptors and initiate a cascade of cellular events to ultimately lead to cell division

90
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What do ras proto-oncogenes do?

example of missense mutations that increase cell signaling to cause cancer

91
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What are the main 3 ways cancer-causing mutations occur?

missense mutations, gene amplification, chromosomal translocations

92
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What is N-myc?

example of gene amplification that increase cell copy number and therefore the amount of protein to cause cancer

93
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What is CML?

chronic myelogenous leukemia which is example of chromosomal translocation; codes an abnormal fusion protein and causes cancer

94
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What are tumor-suppressor genes?

genes that prevent cancer

95
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What would a loss-of-function mutation in tumor-suppressor genes do?

allows cancerous growth to occur

96
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What are examples of tumor-suppressor genes?

Rb, p53, BRCA1/BRCA2

97
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How can tumor-suppressor genes be silenced?

  • mutation in tumor-suppressor gene itself

  • aneuploidy (abnormal number of chromosomes)

98
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How do mutations in tumor-suppressor genes themselves occur?

  • inactivation of promoter (transcription cannot be initiated)

  • early stop codon (nonsense mutation)

99
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When does aneuploidy contribute to the progression of cancer?

if the lost chromosome carries one or more tumor-suppressor genes

100
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What do proteins that maintains genome integrity do in regards to tumor-suppressor genes?

  • prevent damaged cells from dividing

  • perform DNA repair