APES EXAM MULTIPLE CHOICE

All of the populations of organisms within a given area make up a

A. ecosystem

B. community

C. trophic level

D. biosphere

E. genus

B

What is one reason for an even distribution pattern among a particular species in a community?

A. The species forms hierarchal social groups.

B. The species is breeding.

C. Resources are not limiting.

D. Members of the species mate for life.

E. The species is territorial.

E

Which does not describe patterns of population growth?

A. Populations can grow without restraint as long as resources are not limiting.

B. The size of some populations tends to remain relatively constant over time.

C. In some populations size fluctuates in a cyclical pattern.

D. Population size may not vary sporadically in response to environmental changes.

E. Population size is not affected by other populations.

E

The intrinsic growth rate of a population

A. is the number of yearly births in a population.

B. is the number of yearly births minus the number of yearly deaths in a population.

C. is the minimum number of births likely to occur in a population under ideal circumstances.

D. is the maximum potential for growth in a population under ideal conditions.

E. is the maximum potential for growth in a population given limited resources.

D

Which factor is not typically density-dependent in an animal population?

A. nesting sites

B. food

C. water

D. shelter from cold

E. severe storms

E

An exotic species is one which (??) an ecosystem.

A. is rare in

B. is foreign to

C. does not interact with the other species in

D. is the most dominant species in

E. destroys

B

Which does not cause rapid growth in a population?

A. elimination of a pollutant

B. elimination of predators

C. increase in food supply

D. introduction of a new parasite

E. introduction into a new habitat

D

During a single Oregon winter, minimum temperatures did not get much below freezing. The following summer, large mosquito populations were observed in ponds. Cold weather came early the next winter and most ponds froze for 3 months. The following summer, very low mosquito populations were observed. What best explains this pattern in the mosquito population?

A. a density independent factor

B. a density dependent factor

C. the ecosystem's carrying capacity

D. a limiting resource

E. global warming

A

A laboratory experiment followed the growth of a flour beetle population over time. At first the population increased dramatically but later growth slowed and the population size leveled off. While food (the wheat flour in which they live) was abundant, the flour beetles began to eat their own eggs when densities got high. What might we hypothesize about this behavior in the four beetles?

A. It has no effect on the growth of the population, because food scarcity is the limiting factor.

B. It is intended to change the carrying capacity of the environment.

C. It serves as a density-dependent means of population control.

D. It serves as a density-independent means of population control.

E. It serves as a way of regulating age structure in the population.

C

Which is not a type of interspecific interaction?

A. symbiosis

B. predation

C. competition

D. speciation

E. mutualism

D

A biologist who studies interactions at the community level investigates interactions between

A. organisms of one species

B. populations of more than one species

C. animals of one species

D. social animals

E. ecosystems

B

Two species of buttercup can be found in the same field in South Dakota. One species flowers in early spring, and the other species flowers in late summer. Both are pollinated by the same insect species. The different flowering times are an example of

A. competitive exclusion

B. mutualism

C. symbiosis

D. resource partitioning

E. parasitism

D

When an insect eats the lettuce seedlings in your yard, its is engaging in

A. parasitism

B. ecosystem engineering

C. mutualism

D. commensalism

E. herbivory

E

A brightly colored insect that is poisonous to predators is using

A. chemical defenses only

B. morphological defenses only

C. behavioral defenses only

D. morphological and chemical defenses

E. behavioral and chemical defenses

D

The roots of many plants are infected with specialized fungus. The plant supplies carbon to the fungus and the fungus supplies nutrients to the plant. How can this relationship be classified?

A. mutualistic

B. commensalistic

C. parasitic

D. successional

E. competitive

A

A species that plays a major role in determining the structure of its ecological community is

A. a predator

B. a mutualistic species

C. the most abundant species

D. a keystone species

E. an herbivore

D

Which of the following is not true of the general pattern of succession, from a recently disturbed terrestrial site to stable, self0sustaining forest community?

A. a decrease in the number of grass species occurs.

B. shade-loving tree species become dominant in the climax community.

C. Pioneer species give way to perennial, long-lived species.

D. Carbon that is involved in photosynthesis increases.

E. Total biomass tends to decrease.

E

(??) succession begins on bare rock after glaciers have passed, or on newly formed volcanic islands.

A. primary

B. secondary

C. climax

D. pioneer

E. tertiary

A

The first plant community that forms on the bare rock often includes organisms such as

A. herbs and conifers

B. grasses and weeds

C. broad-leaf trees and conifers

D. lichens and mosses

E. woods shrubs and conifers

D

The crude birth rate of a population is expressed as a

A. decimal

B. ratio

C. fraction

D. logarithmic equation

E. percentage

B

If the growth rate of a population is positive and remains constant, the number of people added to the population

A. remains constant

B. fluctuates randomly

C. decreases each year

D. reaches carrying capacity

E. increases each year

E

The total fertility rate is an estimate of

A. the average number of children in a population that will survive past infancy

B. the average number of year and infant born in a population can be expected to live.

C. the average number of children each woman in a population will bear

D. the number of births per 1000 people per year in a particular population

E. the percentage of women in a population that have borns at least one child

C

The human population is currently following roughly a J-shaped curve. This means that the population is

A. growing more slowly than it did 100 years ago

B. changing in a cyclical pattern

C. shrinking at a small but steady rate

D. maintaining its current levels

E. increasing exponentially

E

Populations with an age structure diagram that is narrower at the bottom than at the top have

A. high crude death rates

B. a similar number of individuals in each age group

C. a declining population

D. a high growth rate

E. low crude death rates

C

At present, Earth's human population is

A. stable

B. declining

C. increasing exponentially

D. increasing at a constant rate

E. increased at about 10 percent per year

C

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10 percent would double in

A. 7 years

B. 10 years

C. 15 years

D. 17 years

E. 70 years

A

Malthus believed that human populations grow (??) while food supply grows (??).

A. linearly; exponentially

B. linearly; sigmoidally

C. exponentially; linearly

D. exponentially; logarithmically

E. logarithmically; exponentially

C

A country has a total fertility rate equal to replacement level fertility and emigration equal to immigration. Which of the following must be true?

A. the population is shrinking

B. the population is stable

C. the population is rising

D. the country has population momentum

E. the country has a low GDP

B

Population size can be estimated using the formula

A. CBR + immigration + CDR + emigration

B. CBR + immigration - CDR - emigration

C. CBR + immigration + CDR - emigration

D. CBR - immigration - CDR - emigration

E. CBR - immigration + CDR - emigration

B

An age structure diagram in which he youngest people are the smallest percentage of the population probably represents a country with

A. a population that is about to grow very rapidly

B. a stable population

C. a population that will begin to shrink when that age group reaches sexual maturity

D. a population in which the replacement fertility rate has been exceeded

E. a population in which the TFR has begun to increase

C

Which of the following is not a measure of biodiversity?

A. economic diversity

B. ecosystem diversity

C. genetic diversity

D. species diversity

E. species richness

A

Which of the following is an example of artificial selection?

A. Cichlids have diversified into nearly 200 species in Lake Tanganyika.

B. Thoroughbred racehorses have been bred for speed.

C. Whales have evolved tails that help propel them through water.

D. Darwin's finches have beaks adapted to eating different foods.

E. Ostriches have lost the ability to fly.

B

The yellow perch is a fish that breeds in spring. A single female can produce up to 40,000 eggs at one time. The species is an example of which of the key ideas of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection?

A. Individuals produce an excess of offspring.

B. Humans select for predetermined traits.

C. Individuals vary in their phenotypes.

D. Phenotypic differences in individuals can be inherited.

E. Different phenotypes have different abilities to survive and reproduce.

A

In 2002, Peter and B. Rosemary Grant studied a population of Darwin's finches on one of the Galápagos Islands that feed on seeds of various sizes. After a drought that caused only large seeds to be available to the birds, they found that natural selection favored those birds that had larger beaks and bodies. Once the rains returned and smaller seeds became much more abundant, however, natural selection favored those birds that had smaller beaks and bodies. Which of the following processes is the best interpretation of this scenario?

A. genetic drift

B. founder effect

C. microevolution

D. macroevolution

E. bottleneck effect

C

The northern elephant seal (Mirounga angustirostris) was once hunted to near extinction. Only 20 animals remained alive in 1890. After the species was protected from hunting, its population grew to nearly 30,000 animals, but the large population possesses very low genetic variation. Which of the following processes is the best interpretation of this scenario?

A. evolution by natural selection

B. evolution by artificial selection

C. evolution by the founder effect

D. evolution by the bottleneck effect

E. evolution by genetic drift

D

Which of the following conditions does not define the fundamental niche of a species?

A. humidity

B. predators

C. temperature

D. salinity

E. pH

B

Some scientists estimate that current global extinction rate is about 30,000 species per year. If there are currently 10,000,000 species on Earth, how long will it take to destroy all of the Earth's biodiversity?

A. less than 100 years

B. between 100 and 300 years

C. between 300 and 500 years

D. between 500 and 700 years

E. between 700 and 1,000 years

C

What is the most significant when determining the diversity of an ecosystem?

A. the number of organisms present

B. the number of species present

C. the amount of land the ecosystem covers

D. the amount of precipitation an ecosystem receives

E.the interactions between producers and consumers

B

Which is used to measure the diversity of an ecosystem?

I. Species extinction rate

II. Species richness

III. Species evenness

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I, II and III

E. II and III

E

Which measure of biodiversity takes into account the number of species present and the relative abundance of the species present?

A. Shannon's index

B. Species richness

C. Species evenness

D. Biodiversity index

E. Hardy-Weinberg index

A

Which is used to determine how closely two species are related?

I. Body shape

II. Behavior

III. Genetic similarity

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II

E. I, II, and III

E

Which cellular process can create genetic diversity?

I. Mutation

II. Recombination

III. Respiration

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II

E. I, II, and III

D

What is the process by which part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome?

A. a mutation

B. reattachment

C. natural selection

D. recombination

E. genetic merging

D

(???) is a trait that improves an individual's fitness?

A. an advantage

B. an adaptation

C. a mutation

D. a phenotype

E. an evolved characteristic

B

Which process can be controlled most directly by humans?

A. natural selection

B. artificial selection

C. genetic drift

D. mutation

E. genetic bottleneck

B

Which process of evolution is not random?

A. mutation

B. artificial selection

C. genetic drift

D. bottleneck effect

E. founder effect

B

When a population suddenly reduces in size from habitat loss, natural disaster, or other environmental changes and its subsequent genetic variation is affected, we say it has experienced

A. the founder effect

B. geographic isolation

C. genetic drift

D. the bottleneck effect

E. mutation

D

A population of rabbits lives in a meadow with depression that runs through the middle. The depression fills in which water and becomes a river that separates the population into two groups. Over a very long period the two populations develop into entirely different species, no longer capable of reproducing with each other. This is an example of

A. artificial selection

B. mutation

C. sympatric speciation

D. the bottleneck effect

E. allopatric speciation

E

Which is not related to geographic isolation?

A. the founder effect

B. A population separated into two by a natural disturbance.

C. allopatric speciation

D. sympatric speciation

E. an island colonized by a new group of birds

D

Which pair would most increase the rate of evolution within a species?

A. slow environmental change and high genetic variation

B. rapid environmental change and large population change

C. long generation times and low genetic variation

D. large population size and slow environmental change

E. short generation time and small population size

A

Which species would be most vulnerable to environmental changes?

A. species with a large population

B. niche generalists

C. niche specialists

D. species with rapid reproductive rates

E. species with high genetic variation

C

Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?

A. sunlight

B. bacteria

C. pH

D. water

E. soil composition

B

Which is a product of Photosynthesis?

I. Glucose

II. Carbon Dioxide

III. Water

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II

E. I and III

A

A forest has a GPP of 3.8 kg C/m²/year and the rate of cellular respiration is 2.4 kg C/m²/year. What is the NPP?

A. 6.2 kg C/m²/year

B. 1.4 kg C/m²/year

C. 1.0 kg C/m²/year

D. 9.12 kg C/m²/year

E. 1.58 kg C/m²/year

B

How is the majority of energy within an ecosystem lost?

A. heat loss

B. energy used to grow biomass

C. cellular respiration

D. cellular metabolism

E. energy used to capture prey

A

What law best relates to energy loss within an ecosystem?

A. first law of thermodynamics

B. second law of thermodynamics

C. third law of thermodynamics

D. law of conservation of matter

E. law of relativity

B

Which statement best describes the concept of Net Primary Production?

A. energy captured minus energy lost

B. total amount of energy available from the sun

C. total amount of energy produced from photosynthesis

D. total amount of energy available within an ecosystem

E. total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

A

At which stage of the hydrologic cycle are conditions most likely to contribute the development of algal bloom?

A. evaporation

B. precipitation

C. transpiration

D. infiltration

E. runoff

E

Which element is the most abundant in the atmosphere?

A. oxygen

B. nitrogen

C. phosphorus

D. sulfer

E. hydrogen

B

Which human activity has affected the nitrogen cycle?

I. Use of fertilizers

II. Combustion of fossil fuels

III. Deforestation

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II

E. I, II, and III

D

What is a watershed?

A. A network of streams leading to a larger river

B. A network of rivers and bays that lead to the ocean

C. A reservoir of water stored underground

D. An area of land that drains to a particular water body

E. An extensive wetland system leading to a bay

D

What effect would clear-cutting an area within a watershed have on the water quality of a river running through the watershed?

A. Decrease in nutrient concentration in the water of the clear-cut watershed

B. Increase in nutrient concentration in the waters of the clear-cut watershed

C. Decrease in the amount of runoff entering the waters of the clear-cut watershed

D. Increase in the biodiversity of the river

E. No effect on the water quality of a river

B

The anticancer drug Taxol was originally extracted from the bank of the Pacific yew tree. This drug is an example of a type of ecosystem service known as

A. cultural services

B. support systems

C. provisions

D. resilience

E. regulating services

C

Which of the following is the best description of a region's climate?

A. The average weather that occurs over a long time.

B. The average precipitation that occurs over a long time.

C. The average high and low temperatures of a region.

D. The amount of precipitation in a typical year.

E. The average temperature and precipitation over 5 years.

A

In which level of the atmosphere does weather occur?

A. Troposphere

B. Stratosphere

C. Mesosphere

D. Thermosphere

E. Exosphere

A

What best describes the temperature of the atmosphere?

A. It decreases with an increase in altitude in the troposphere.

B. It increases with an increase in altitude.

C. It maintains a constant level throughout the atmosphere.

D. It fluctuates up and down randomly through the layers of the atmosphere.

E.It falls in the stratosphere.

A

Which of the following is not true about the Sun's energy heating Earth?

A. The angle at which the Sun'a rays hit the Earth depends on the latitude.

B. The sun's rays are concentrated over a smaller surface area at the equator than in high latitudes.

C. The polar regions reflect more sunlight than the tropical regions.

D. The Sun's rays are more strongly reflected in the lower latitudes.

E. The unequal heating if Earth helps determine an area's climate.

D

Which has the highest albedo?

A. Asphalt

B. Fresh Snow

C. Forest

D. Croplands

E. Water

B

What is the overall direction of global air currents at the equator?

A. Air currents rise at the equator.

B. Air currents sink at the equator.

C. Air currents move horizontally to the north at the equator.

D. Air currents move horizontally to the south at the equator.

E. Air currents are relatively stable at the equator.

A

What is a primary reason for the seasons on Earth?

A. The change in distance between Earth and the Sun that occurs with Earth's orbit

B. The changing period of daylight over the course of the year

C. The Coriolis Effect

D. The tilt of Earth on its axis

E. The speed of the Earth's orbit around the sun

D

Where is upwelling most likely to occur?

A. Along the west coasts of a continent

B. Along the east coast of a continent

C. In the center of ocean basins

D. Along the equator

E. In the polar oceans

D

Which of the following is true about El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO)?

I. It suppresses upwelling off the coast of South America

II. It contributes to global climate change

III. It causes the trade winds to weaken, allowing warm water to move eastward.

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and III

E.I, II, and III

D

What phenomenon does the above figure represent?

A. Mountain rain effect

B. Prevailing ocean winds

C. Desert formation

D. Climate change

E. Rain shadow effect

E

According to the graph above, what biome would you expect to find in an area with an average temperature of 10 C and 100 cm of precipitation annually?

A. Tundra

B. Boreal Forest

C. Temperate Rainforest

D. Temperate Grassland

E. Temperate Seasonal Forest

E

What factors are used to classify a biome?

I. Average temperature

II. Average precipitation

III. Distinctive plants adapted to area.

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II

E. I, II and III

E

Boreal forests tend to have a thick layer of organic material but the soil is poor in nutrients. What is the best explanation for this?

A. The organic material is low in nutrients

B. The rapid growth rate of plants uses the nutrients rapidly

C. The soils have a low permeability and the nutrients do not dissolve in the soils.

D. The soil is too rocky to hold a high content of nutrients.

E. Low precipitation rates and cold temperatures slow decomposition

E

In the diagram above, which is the benthic zone? (diagram number 1)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

D

When we discuss "our environment" we are referring to

A. All conditions in the world.

B. the sum of all the conditions surrounding us that influence life.

C. primarily interactions that harm the atmosphere.

D. only interactions that affect human life.

E. only conditions that cause negative effects in our health.

B

Ecosystem services

A. are the processes by which life supporting resources are produced.

B. can be provided by a forest.

C. can be provided by an aquifer

D. can be provided by soil

E. All of these answers are correct.

E

Evidence of biodiversity is seen in the

A. number of species, ecosystems and habitats in a region.

B. genetic variation among human populations.

C. variety of nutrients available in a region.

D. number of ecosystems and habitats in a region

E. All of these answers are correct.

E

The population with the greatest ability to respond to environmental change most likely is the one with

A. high genetic diversity.

B. low genetic diversity.

C. one type of dominant organism.

D. two types of dominant organisms

E. more animals than plants

A

The health of frog populations is used as an indicator of environmental health because frogs

A. are exposed to the water.

B. are amphibious.

C. eat insects which are very low on the food chain.

D. live in the tropics.

E. may ingest toxins on land.

B

Factors that are responsible for gain production not keeping up with worldwide population include

A. crop diseases

B. soil degradation

C. use of food crops for duel

D. government encouragement to let land remain uncultivated

E. all of these answers are correct

E

Human population today is closest to

A. 3 billion

B. 5 billion

C. 6 billion

D. 7 billion

E. 12 billion

D

The following are non-renewable resources except

A. aluminum

B. oil

C. coal

D. copper

E. timber

E

Economic development goes hand in hand with

A. decreased use of non-renewable resources

B. increased consumption of resources

C. smaller, more efficient living styles

D. better planting strategies for crops

E. sustainable use of renewable resources

B

Sustainable development

A. was demonstrated on Easter Island

B. requires resources to be saved and stored for one generation

C. is achieved when food is raised by the people who are eating it

D. balances human needs and economic development

E. allows for clear-cutting trees

D

The following are examples of sustainable practices.

I. Forests cut for timber are replanted.

II. Steel is recycled.

III. Plastic is disposed of in landfills because that is less expensive than recycling.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and III only

D. I and II only

E. I, II, and III

D

When studies are done to determine the effect of pesticides on humans,

A. human subjects are used to test the pesticides

B. the health of similar groups of people who have not been exposed to the pesticides are used as a basis for the comparison

C. it is very difficult to find more than a single person exposed

D. higher primates are tested because their systems are close to those of humans

E. both A and B

B

Inductive reasoning

A. is the process of making general statements from specific facts

B. is the process of applying a general statement to specific facts

C. doesn't require facts

D. is the same thing as a hypothesis

E. is the same thing as observation

B

The study of environmental science differs form study of the natural sciences such as biology and chemistry because it

A. doesn't encourage critical thinking

B. isn't included in most institutions of higher learning

C. involves politics, law, and economics

D. eliminates the consideration of physics

E. doesn't take into account the scientific process

C

Environmental justice is

A. the body of law that deals with environmental issues

B. the type of legal system that environmental lawyers use to defend nature

C. a social movement that works toward equal enforcement of environmental laws in poor communities

D. a type of legal punishment for polluters

E. not needed because pollution is equitably distributed around the world

C

Matter is

A. anything that has volume and mass

B. anything that has energy

C. anything that doesn't have mass

D. anything that doesn't have volume

E. none of these answers are correct

A

Electrons are

A. negatively charged

B. positively charged

C. neutral

D. found in the nucleus of an atom

E. equal to the number of neutrons

A

Elements that gain or lose electrons to form compounds create

A. ionic bonds

B. protons

C. covalent bonds

D. molecular bonds

E. isotopes

A

To produce sodium chloride, common table salt, a single electron in the outer shell of the sodium atom is transferred to the outer shell of the chlorine atom. This is an example of

A. the formation of an ionic bond

B. the formation of a covalent bond

C. radioactive decay

D. the formation of a hydrogen bond

E. none of the above

A

The polarity of the water molecule is the result of

A. the slight negative charge of the hydrogen atoms

B. shared electrons spending more time near the oxygen atom than near the hydrogen atoms

C. shared electrons spending more time near the hydrogen atoms than near the oxygen atom

D. boiling point

E. two positive sides repelling each other

B

Water is a good solvent. This statement explains which o the following phenomena?

I. High concentrations of dissolved atoms in seawater

II. capacity of living organisms to store many types of molecules of solution in their cells

III. easy transport of toxic substances through the environment

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II

D. I and III

E. I, II, and III

E

On the pH scale, ____ is neutral

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

E. 7

E

According to the law of conservation of matter,

I. matter can be created

II. matter cannot be destroyed

III. after a chemical reaction, the original atoms remain

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II

E. II and III

E