OPP IV Exam 2 Study Guide: General Concepts in Osteopathic Medicine

sympathetic and parasympathetic levels

what level(s) do viscerosomatic reflexes occur?

sympathetics only

what level(s) do facilitated segments occur?

albuterol (asthma more likely)

If someone has a nocturnal cough at night with a somatic dysfunction at T1 what medication might be helpful for this patient?

omeprazole (GERD more likely)

If someone has a nocturnal cough at night with a somatic dysfunction at T8 what medication might be helpful for this patient?

COPD

Patients with ___________ are an example of people with a flattened diaphragm and diminished zone of apposition and would benefit from thoracoabdominal diagphragm doming

it improves the pressure gradient between abdominal cavity and thoracic cavity, which helps improve lymphatic flow

how does doming of the diaphragm improve diaphragmatic excursion?

long; short

Lumbar spine will side-bend towards the ___________ leg side and rotate towards the ________leg side (Type I like mechanics)

towards; towards

Lumbar spine will side-bend ________ the long leg side and rotate ________ the short leg side (Type I like mechanics)

sidebend towards the long leg

rotate towards the short leg

what does the lumbar spine do in response to uneven legs?

internal rotation

tight piriformis muscle would lead to reduced hip ____________

isometric contraction

Most commonly used form of contraction in muscle energy is _______________

osteoarthritis

A heel lift for a leg length difference may help prevent _______________________ in a patient

tibia

a posterior talus means that the ________ is anterior

talus

a posterior tibia means that the _______ is anterior

decreased plantar flexion

what motion is restricted if the talus is posterior?

decreased dorsiflexion

what motion is restricted if the talus is anterior?

C3,4,5

what is the innervation of the diagphragm?

AA (C1 on C2)

________________ accounts for 50% of the cervical spine's rotational motion

OA (C0 on C1)

____________ accounts for 50% of the cervical spine's flexion/extension motion

rheumatoid arthritis, Down Syndrome, ligamentous instability

in what patients should upper cervical direct manipulation be avoided?

singultus

what is the medical term for hiccups?

phrenic nerve (C3-C5)

what nerves control hiccuping?

2/3 from ASIS to midline

what is the counterstrain point for the psoas?

Flexion and side-bending towards the tender point

what is the treatment for psoas counterstrain point?

principle 1

The body is a unit; the person is a unit of mind, body, and spirit

what osteopathic principle is demonstrated?

gastric ulcer causes thoracic tissue texture changes

principle 2

The body is capable of self-regulation, self-healing, and health maintenance

what osteopathic principle is demonstrated?

a fracture heals itself

Structure and function are reciprocally interrelated

what is the 3rd principle of osteopathic medicine?

Rational treatment is based upon an understanding of the basic principles of body unity, self-regulation, and the inter-relationship of structure and function

what is the 4th principle of osteopathic medicine?

biomechanical (structural, postural)

what model of osteopathic medicine is described?

OMT directed toward normalizing mechanical somatic dysfunction, structural integrity, physiological function, homeostasis

neurological

what model of osteopathic medicine is described?

Proprioceptive and muscle imbalances, facilitation, nerve compression disorders, autonomic reflex and visceral dysfunctions, brain/CNS dysfunctions

respiratory/circulatory

what model of osteopathic medicine is described?

lymphatic techniques

metabolic/nutritional

what model of osteopathic medicine is described?

regulation through metabolic processes

behavioral

what model of osteopathic medicine is described?

focuses on mental, emotional, social and spiritual dimensions related to health and disease

acute

acute or chronic somatic dysfunction?

boggy tissue

acute

acute or chronic somatic dysfunction?

normal, sluggish ROM

acute

acute or chronic somatic dysfunction?

increased in muscle tone, contraction, muscle spindle firing

chronic

acute or chronic somatic dysfunction?

fibrotic, ropy tissue

chronic

acute or chronic somatic dysfunction?

decreased muscle tone, sometimes flaccid, possible atropy

chronic

acute or chronic somatic dysfunction?

restricted ROM

chronic

acute or chronic somatic dysfunction?

somatovisceral effects are more often present

somatic dysfunction

_________ is an impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic (body framework) system: skeletal, arthrodial, and myofascial structures, and related vascular, lymphatic, and neural elements

•T: Tissue Texture Changes

•A: Asymmetry

•R: Restriction of motion

•T: Tenderness

how are somatic dysfunctions diagnosed?

BUM (backwards, upward, medial)

what is the orientation of the superior facets of the cervical spine?

AIL (anterior, inferior, lateral)

what is the orientation of the inferior facets of the cervical spine?

BUL (backward, upward, lateral)

what is the orientation of the superior facets of the thoracic spine?

AIM (anterior, inferior, medial)

what is the orientation of the inferior facets of the thoracic spine?

BM/BUM (backward medial or upward)

what is the orientation of the superior facets of the lumbar spine?

AL/AIL (anterior, lateral, or inferior)

what is the orientation of the inferior facets of the lumbar spine?

transverse; vertical

rotation is movement in a _________ plane about a _________ axis

coronal; anterior-posterior

sidebending is movement in a _________ plane about a _________ axis

anterior; sagittal; transverse

flexion is _________ movement in a _________ plane about a _________ axis

posterior; sagittal; transverse

extension is ________ movement in a _________ plane about a _________ axis

anatomic barreir

he limit of motion imposed by anatomic structure; the limit of passive motion

physiologic barrier

________ is the limit of active motion

elastic barrier

Range between physiologic and anatomic barrier of motion in which passive ligamentous stretching occurs before tissue disruption

restrictive barrier

A functional limit that abnormally diminishes the normal physiologic range

restrictive barrier

Loss of motion within the joint's normal ROM

physiologic barrier

the restrictive barrier is motion that stops before the joint reaches its ___________

pathologic barrier (like bone spurs)

A restriction of joint motion associated with pathologic change of tissues

L4

a herniation of the disk at L3-L4 will affect what nerve root?

side bending; rotation

in type I mechanics, _________ precedes_______

type I

what mechanics?

-Typically applies to a group of vertebrae (more than two)

type II

what mechanics?

-Typically applies to a single vertebrae

rotation; side-bending

in type II mechanics, _________ precedes_______

right rotation

if a spinous process is deviated to the left = _____________

left rotation

If a spinous process is deviated to the right = _______________

T1-T3 (and T12)

______________spinous processes project posteriorly therefore the tip of the spinous process is in the same plane as the transverse process of that vertebra

T4-T6 (and T11)

_________ spinous processes project slightly downward, therefore the tip of the spinous process lies in a plane halfway between that vertebra’s transverse processes and the transverse processes of the vertebra below it

T7-T9 (and T10)

____________ spinous processes project moderately downward, therefore the tip of the spinous process is in a plane with the transverse process below it

indirect

direct or indirect?

Uses inherent forces

indirect

direct or indirect?

Uses a compressive, tractional, or torsional component

indirect

direct or indirect?

somatic dysfunction is exaggerated/augmented

direct

direct or indirect?

uses external forces

direct

direct or indirect?

taken the way it does not like to go

indirect

direct or indirect?

counterstrain

indirect

direct or indirect?

FPR

indirect

direct or indirect?

BLT

either one

direct or indirect?

myofascial release

either one

direct or indirect?

cranial technique

direct

direct or indirect?

soft tissue

direct

direct or indirect?

articulatory

direct

direct or indirect?

springing

medial to ASIS

where is the AL1 counterstrain point?

medial to AIIS

where is the AL2 counterstrain point?

lateral to AIIS

where is the AL3 counterstrain point?

inferior to AIIS

where is the AL4 counterstrain point?

anterior, superior aspect of pubic ramus lateral to PS

where is the AL5 counterstrain point?

FSTRA

same side of tender point

what positioning is used to treat an AL1 counterstrain point and where is the physician positioned in relation to the point?

FSART

opposite side of tender point

what positioning is used to treat an AL2 counterstrain point and where is the physician positioned in relation to the point?

FSART

opposite side of tender point

what positioning is used to treat an AL3 counterstrain point and where is the physician positioned in relation to the point?

FSART

opposite side of tender point

what positioning is used to treat an AL4 counterstrain point and where is the physician positioned in relation to the point?

FSARA

same side as tender point

what positioning is used to treat an AL5 counterstrain point and where is the physician positioned in relation to the point?

away

in post-isometric relaxation the patient pushes ________ from the barrier

toward

in reciprocal inhibition the patient pushes ________ from the barrier

somatosomatic reflex

what reflex is described?

rib somatic dysfunction from an innominate dysfunction

somatovisceral reflex

what reflex is described?

triggering an asthma attack when working on the thoracic spine

viscerosomatic reflex

what reflex is described?

gallbladder disease affecting musculature

viscerovisceral reflex

what reflex is described?

pancreatitis causing vomiting

body part in neutral

compression applies

place into ease of motion

what are the steps of FPR?