Counseling and Psychopathology Lecture Review

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300 practice flashcards for graduate-level clinical mental health counseling students reviewing diagnosis, assessment, and treatment planning across major DSM-5 categories.

Last updated 6:57 PM on 6/20/26
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430 Terms

1
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What is a critical consideration for counselors when using software that outputs treatment plans?

Counselors must ensure the treatment plan is specific to the individual needs of the client.

2
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In the stages of change model, what characterizes the contemplation phase?

The client is becoming more aware that a problem exists but has not yet made plans to change.

3
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What does the acronym SMART stand for in the context of treatment goals?

Specific, measurable, attainable, results-oriented, and timely.

4
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Why is it important to assess a client's level of functioning before creating a treatment plan?

To set realistic goals for the client.

5
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According to the I CAN START model, what does contextual assessment involve?

Factors such as demographics, family dynamics or support, and current struggles.

6
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In the I CAN START model, what is the primary focus of treatment planning?

Integrating the client's strengths.

7
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What is the diagnostic purpose of WHODAS scores in the DSM-5?

To assess the client's level of functioning.

8
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What is a common mistake novice counselors make when creating treatment goals?

Creating too many treatment goals or goals that are too complex.

9
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Which document type in counseling is considered fluid and must be continuously adjusted?

The treatment plan.

10
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What is the definition of case conceptualization?

Developing a clinical picture of a client's situation.

11
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In what year was the most recent version of the American Counseling Association (ACA) Code of Ethics published?

20142014

12
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How does informed consent function within the counseling relationship?

It is an ongoing process.

13
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What is the effect of managed care systems on client confidentiality?

It has led to decreased client confidentiality.

14
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What is called when a counselor assigns a less severe diagnosis to ensure client confidentiality?

Downcoding.

15
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What level of responsibility does the medical model of change place on the individual?

The individual level.

16
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Which professional is typically the treatment leader in clinical treatment teams?

The physician or psychiatrist.

17
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What is the primary function of accrediting bodies in counseling?

To enhance the quality of services provided to consumers.

18
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Which DSM-5 tool helps counselors obtain clinically useful information and develop relational connections with clients?

The Cultural Formation Interview.

19
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What factor is most likely to determine the number of sessions and type of counseling approved for reimbursement by third-party payers?

The client's diagnosis.

20
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Which variable is considered one of the most important client factors for successful counseling outcomes?

The client's motivation to change.

21
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What is an example of a false negative in suicide risk assessment?

Failing to have hospitalized clients who go on to commit suicide.

22
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What is the reported percentage of the general population impacted by depressive and bipolar disorders?

210%2-10\%

23
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What are the three modules of Family Focused Therapy (FFT)?

Psychoeducation, communication, and problem-solving.

24
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Which Bipolar disorder subtype is characterized by the absence of psychotic symptoms?

Bipolar II.

25
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What does the acronym STEP stand for in Bipolar treatment?

Systematic Treatment Enhancement Program.

26
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What characterizes the hallmark of social anxiety disorder?

A fear of negative evaluation in social situations.

27
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What is the most evidence-based treatment for agoraphobia?

Situational in vivo exposure.

28
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What is the primary focus of Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT)?

Encouraging clients to accept rather than attempt to control passing thoughts.

29
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What is the most effective intervention for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT).

30
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In treating trichotillomania, which intervention focuses on increasing awareness and developing competing responses?

Habit reversal training.

31
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What is the timeframe difference between Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

ASD occurs within 44 weeks and lasts between 22 days and 44 weeks, while PTSD can occur later and lasts longer.

32
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According to the transcript, what is a key determinant in the prognosis of attachment disorders?

Diagnosing and treating the disorder as early as possible.

33
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Which disorder is associated with inappropriate attachments to strangers and socially inappropriate behavior?

Disinhibited social engagement disorder.

34
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What is the primary treatment goal in helping a client with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?

Setting firm boundaries so that the client feels safe.

35
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What is the most evidence-based approach for treating Antisocial Personality Disorder?

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT).

36
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What is considered a positive symptom of psychosis?

Disorganized behavior.

37
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What is the focus of Social Skills Training (SST) for individuals with schizophrenia?

Learning appropriate behavior and communication.

38
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What does 'avolition' refer to in the context of psychotic disorders?

A lack of motivation to complete tasks or maintain personal hygiene.

39
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Which medication is listed as not likely to be prescribed for psychotic symptoms?

Buspar.

40
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What is the first step in Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) for treating bulimia?

Targeting life-threatening behaviors.

41
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What is the definition of pica?

The consumption of non-food substances.

42
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What treatment component is listed as especially important for anorexia nervosa?

Family treatment.

43
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What is a key counselor priority when working with Conduct Disorder (CD)?

Identifying client strengths.

44
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What is the most effective and accessible behavioral reinforcer for children with ODD?

Verbal praise.

45
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At what age can a diagnosis of enuresis first be assigned?

55 years old.

46
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What characterizes 'doctor shopping' in somatic symptom disorders?

Seeking medical treatment from many professionals to obtain a medical diagnosis.

47
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What is the integration of personalities as a therapeutic goal specific to?

Dissociative Identity Disorder.

48
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Which sleep disorder treatment is described as a first resort but often a temporary solution?

Medications for insomnia.

49
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What does circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder refer to?

The mismatch between external and internal sleep-wake systems.

50
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Which group is gender dysphoria reported to be most common in according to the transcript?

Men.

51
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What should a counselor do if they learn of a homicidal client's intended victim?

Notify the intended victim.

52
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What is a core competency for counseling suicidal clients?

Risk assessment and intervention skills, developing a crisis plan, understanding legal/ethical issues, and documentation.

53
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In the I CAN START model, what is contextual assessment a part of?

Case conceptualization.

54
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What is the prognosis for individuals with dissociative amnesia?

Specific to symptom severity.

55
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What is the term for falsifying someone else's symptoms (e.g., a child’s) without personal gain?

Factitious disorder imposed on another.

56
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What is the objective of satiation therapy in rumination disorder?

Oral stimulation.

57
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What does the Intolerance of Uncertainty Model (IUM) suggest about worry?

Individuals believe worry protects them from negative events or prepares them to cope.

58
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Which phase of treatment for psychotic disorders prioritizes safety and environmental structuring?

The acute phase.

59
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What is the age threshold for a diagnosis of encopresis?

44 years old.

60
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Which personality disorder is characterized by a high rate of suicide attempts?

Borderline Personality Disorder.

61
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What is the motivation for stealing in kleptomania?

Personal satisfaction.

62
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What is the primary intervention for obstructive sleep apnea?

Maxillomandibular advancement.

63
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In treating paraphilia, what does cognitive-behavioral therapy often focus on?

Recognizing deviant cognitions and self-policing strategies.

64
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What is the significance of the year 20142014 in counseling ethics?

It is when the current ACA Code of Ethics was published.

65
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What is 'upcoding' in medical billing?

Misrepresenting a diagnosis to be more severe than it is to ensure insurance coverage.

66
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What characterizes 'derealization' for a client?

The world around the individual appears distorted as if looking from inside a bubble.

67
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What characterizes 'depersonalization' for a client?

An experience of hovering over one's body and observing oneself from the outside.

68
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What is considered a prominent predictor of future suicide attempts?

Past suicide attempts.

69
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What is the primary role of a safety contract in suicide prevention?

A statement that the client will not commit suicide for a specific period of time.

70
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What are the pillars of treatment for schizophrenia?

Medication, psychosocial approaches, and rehabilitation services.

71
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What is a common indicator of a person entering a hypomanic phase?

A sudden, characteristic change in functioning directly noticeable to others.

72
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What is the reported focus of functional analytic psychotherapy for histrionic personality disorder?

Bringing awareness to and correcting problematic behaviors in session.

73
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For which disorder is systematic desensitization a commonly used treatment?

Avoidant Personality Disorder.

74
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Which disorder was newly added to the DSM-5?

Excoriation (skin picking) disorder.

75
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What is the hallmark therapeutic goal for someone with Antisocial Personality Disorder using mentalization-based therapy?

Reconstructing maladaptive relationship patterns and teaching coping skills.

76
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What is the focus of inference-based therapy?

Body dysmorphic disorder.

77
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What is the relationship between agoraphobia and location?

It is a fear of situations in which escape may be difficult or impossible.

78
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What characterizes ARFID (Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder)?

Refusing certain foods based on sensory characteristics.

79
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What is the age criteria for childhood-onset Conduct Disorder?

Symptoms begin before the age of 1010.

80
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What is the focus of sequential treatment for dissociative amnesia?

Symptom regulation and narrative storytelling.

81
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What symptoms are included in the 'negative symptoms' of psychosis?

Poverty of speech, disturbance of affect, and alogia.

82
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Which adjunct therapy is recommended for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?

Mindfulness-based interventions and Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT).

83
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What characterizes the 'medical model' of change's view on problems?

Problems and change are placed at/on the individual level.

84
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What is the definition of 'doctor shopping' in somatic symptom and related disorders?

Seeking treatment from many medical professionals to obtain a medical diagnosis.

85
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What is the importance of a safety plan for interpersonal violence victims?

To manage violent situations and improve self-esteem.

86
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What characterizes the mood of a child with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder?

Mood swings, irritability, and tantrums.

87
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For which disorder is 'prolonged exposure therapy' a commonly used treatment?

Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD).

88
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What is the role of 'thin spaces' in writing LaTeX for units in scientific notation?

They separate numbers from units, such as in kJmol1kJ\,mol^{-1}.

89
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What should be ruled out first when working with pediatric enuresis or encopresis?

General medical conditions.

90
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What are the risk factors associated with homicidal ideation?

Past criminal charges, lack of empathy and remorse, psychiatric disorders, and substance abuse.

91
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What is the relationship between session limits and treatment goals?

Session limits influence the scope of treatment plans and the goals themselves.

92
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What characterizes the contemplation stage of change?

Awareness that a problem exists without active plans to change yet.

93
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What is the reported outcome of managed care regarding counselor record-keeping?

Increased record keeping for counselors.

94
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What characterizes a false positive in suicide risk assessment?

Providing restrictive care to clients not seriously in danger of harming themselves.

95
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What intervention is used for selective mutism?

Music therapy.

96
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How do obsessions function in anxiety-related disorders according to the transcript?

They relieve the client of distressing feelings.

97
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What is the evidence-based effectiveness of group CBT for hoarding?

It has been shown to be effective.

98
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What characterizes the clinical presentation of delusional disorder?

Persistent delusions with minimal impact on social or occupational functioning.

99
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What is the primary treatment for the 'episodic' nature of mood disorders in the DSM-5?

Symptom management and relapse prevention.

100
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What characterizes the Restricted type of Anorexia?

Losing weight primarily through dieting and sometimes exercise.