RADT 153 Unit 3 Practice Exan

What does Code Blue indicate in a hospital setting?

A full cardiac arrest requiring the crash cart

In a radiology department, where is the crash cart specifically located and why?

In rooms where iodinated contrast media is used, because contrast reactions are the primary emergency risk

A patient arrives with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6. What is the correct immediate response?

Score of 7 or less is dangerous — notify the physician, get the emergency cart, prepare oxygen and IV fluids, and never leave the patient alone

What are the 3 behavioral categories of the Glasgow Coma Scale and its total score range?

Eyes, Motor response, Verbal response — total score 3–15; score of 7 or less is dangerous

5. Which of the following is one of the four major indicators that a patient is going into shock?

A) Decreased respiratory rate

B) Increased blood pressure

*C) Decreased urine output

D) Decreased heart rate

6. What are the four major indicators of shock? (Select the complete correct list)

A) Increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, increased urine output, pale skin

*B) Increased respiration, increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, decreased urine output

C) Decreased respiration, increased blood pressure, increased urine output, cool skin

D) Irregular heart rate, decreased blood pressure, increased urine output, fever

7. A patient in the irreversible stage of shock develops low blood pH with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and unusual weakness. What is this condition?

A) Pulmonary edema

*B) Lactic acidosis

C) Septicemia

D) Renal tubular necrosis

8. What are the hallmarks of the irreversible stage of shock?

A) BP normal, HR elevated, fever, and severe dehydration

*B) BP remains low, renal and liver failure, necrotic tissue toxins released, overwhelming lactic acidosis

C) BP elevated, HR slow, normal urine output, and confusion

D) Rapid BP fluctuations, strong pulse, increased urine output, and high fever

9. Which of the following is a determinant that makes a patient more susceptible to developing shock?

A) High blood pressure

*B) Bowel obstruction

C) High platelet count

D) Recent high-protein meal

10. A patient in Class I hypovolemic shock has lost 15% blood volume. Which set of vitals correctly describes this class?

A) BP below normal; HR >140 bpm; respiration >40/min; patient confused

*B) BP normal; HR <100 bpm; respiration 14–20/min; patient slightly anxious; urine output normal

C) BP normal; HR >100 bpm; respiration 20–30/min; patient increasingly anxious

D) BP below normal; HR >120 bpm; respiration 30–40/min; patient anxious and confused

11. In Class IV hypovolemic shock (>40% blood loss), what is the expected heart rate?

A) Less than 100 bpm — the body is too depleted to maintain tachycardia

B) Between 100–120 bpm with a bounding pulse

*C) Greater than 140 bpm with a weak and thready pulse

D) Between 60–100 bpm — still within normal limits

12. Which type of shock uniquely presents with BRADYCARDIA and WARM, DRY skin?

A) Hypovolemic shock

B) Cardiogenic shock

*C) Neurogenic shock

D) Septic shock

13. Septic shock has a mortality rate of 40–50% within 12 hours. Which patient is at HIGHEST risk?

A) A healthy 28-year-old athlete with no chronic conditions

*B) An elderly immunosuppressed patient with an indwelling urinary catheter

C) A 35-year-old with well-controlled Type 2 diabetes who exercises regularly

D) A 45-year-old with well-controlled hypertension on no other medications

14. A descriptor in a matching question reads: 'Blood pools in peripheral vessels; vessels unable to constrict; decreased venous return; AKA vasogenic shock; includes neurogenic and septic subtypes.' What type of shock is this?

A) Hypovolemic shock

B) Obstructive shock

C) Cardiogenic shock

*D) Distributive shock

15. Which of the following correctly describes obstructive shock?

A) Shock caused by the heart muscle failing to pump enough blood from a myocardial infarction

*B) Shock caused by pathologic conditions (PE, cardiac tamponade) that interfere with the heart's pumping action, unrelated to heart pathology itself

C) Shock caused by bacterial endotoxins triggering widespread vasodilation

D) Shock caused by a decreased volume of circulating blood from hemorrhage or fluid loss

16. Anaphylactic shock is triggered by histamine and bradykinin release. What physical effect leads to shock?

A) They destroy red blood cells, reducing oxygen-carrying capacity

B) They cause vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure

*C) They cause vasodilation and peripheral blood pooling, reducing venous return to the heart

D) They directly damage the myocardium, reducing cardiac output

17. What are the three levels of anaphylactic reaction severity?

A) Minor, Serious, and Critical

*B) Mild, Moderate (Intermediate), and Severe — any mild reaction can become major within 2–3 minutes

C) Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3

D) Local, Systemic, and Anaphylactic — only the last level is considered an allergic reaction

18. A mild anaphylactic reaction begins during a contrast injection. What is the key safety warning?

A) Mild reactions are self-limiting and always resolve on their own within 15–20 minutes

*B) Any mild reaction can progress to a major life-threatening reaction within 2–3 minutes — never ignore early signs

C) Mild reactions only affect the skin and never progress to cardiovascular involvement

D) Mild reactions require immediate epinephrine before any other assessment

19. A patient receiving contrast says they feel a warm flushed sensation and notice a metallic taste. What is this?

A) An allergic reaction — stop the injection immediately

*B) A transient response — normal and expected; do NOT confuse it with an allergic reaction

C) A moderate anaphylactic reaction — call a code and prepare epinephrine

D) A sign of contrast extravasation — remove the IV immediately

20. Which of the following is a TRANSIENT response to contrast (not an allergic reaction)?

A) Sneezing and coughing

*B) Metallic taste in the mouth and warm flushed feeling

C) Difficulty breathing and chest tightness

D) Urticaria (hives) and bronchospasm

21. A patient has a known history of hypersensitivity reactions. How does this affect contrast reaction risk?

A) It has no significant effect on contrast reaction risk

*B) It increases their reaction risk by 3–10 times

C) It decreases risk because the immune system has already encountered the antigen

D) It only matters if the previous reaction was specifically to iodinated contrast

22. What does premedication with Benadryl and Solu-Medrol actually accomplish before contrast?

A) It completely eliminates the risk of any allergic reaction

*B) It minimizes the severity of a potential reaction but does NOT eliminate it — the patient can still react

C) It converts any potential anaphylactic reaction into a mild transient response only

D) It only works if the patient has never had a prior reaction to contrast

23. What is the first-line emergency drug for anaphylactic shock and what does it do?

A) Solu-Medrol — suppresses the immune response and decreases inflammation

*B) Epinephrine/adrenaline — a vasopressor that increases BP, heart rate, and cardiac output

C) Benadryl — blocks histamine to reduce the allergic response

D) Aminophylline — relaxes bronchial muscles to relieve bronchospasm

24. Why are beta-blockers a concern for a contrast patient who develops anaphylactic shock?