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The most specific of the body's defense mechanisms against infection is:
a. Intact skin
b. The immune response
c. Skin secretions
d. The inflammatory response
b. The immune response
Which statement is false?
a. The primary lesion of syphilis is called a chancre
b. The secondary lesion of syphilis occurs at the site of inoculation with the organism
c. The tertiary lesion of syphilis is called a gumma
d. Syphilis is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum
b. The secondary lesion of syphilis occurs at the site of inoculation with the organism
Perioral lesions of impetigo may resemble:
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes labialis
c. Herpes zoster
d. Actinomycosis
b. Herpes labialis
Which of the following is not associated with group A, β-hemolytic streptococcal infection?
a. Tonsillitis
b. Syphilis
c. Scarlet fever
d. Rheumatic fever
b. Syphilis
Oral candidiasis is caused by a:
a. Bacterium
b. Yeastlike fungus
c. Spirochete
d. Protozoan
b. Yeastlike fungus
Which statement is false?
a. Angular cheilitis may be caused by Candida albicans
b. White lesions resulting from candidiasis may not rub off the mucosal surface
c. Erythematous candidiasis is usually completely asymptomatic
d. Denture stomatitis may be a form of oral candidiasis
c. Erythematous candidiasis is usually completely asymptomatic
Which type of infection is involved when normal components of the oral microflora can cause disease?
a. Chronic inflammatory
b. Opportunistic
c. Hyperplastic
d. Granulomatous
b. Opportunistic
The most characteristic clinical feature of herpes zoster is:
a. Ulcer formation
b. Pain
c. Unilateral distribution of lesions
d. Abscesses that drain through fistulas
c. Unilateral distribution of lesions
A cytologic smear may be helpful in the diagnosis of:
a. Coxsackievirus infection
b. Human papillomavirus infection
c. Tuberculosis
d. Candidiasis
d. Candidiasis
Which condition is not associated with the Epstein-Barr virus?
a. Hairy leukoplakia
b. Herpangina
c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Herpangina
Which of the following stages of syphilis is not infectious?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. All stages are equally infectious
c. Tertiary
Which of the following is not associated with syphilis?
a. Mucous patch
b. Venereal Disease Research Laboratories and fluorescent treponemal antibody
c. Dark-field microscopy
d. Hypodontia
d. Hypodontia
Which of the following microorganisms causes tuberculosis?
a. Mycobacterium israelii
b. Actinomycosis israelii
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Treponema pallidum
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A positive skin reaction to PPD indicates:
a. Active tuberculosis
b. Contagious tuberculosis
c. Whether a person has ever been infected with the tuberculosis bacteria
d. Need for antibiotic therapy
c. Whether a person has ever been infected with the tuberculosis bacteria
"Sulfur granules" are a feature of which of the following?
a. Syphilis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Candida
d. Actinomycosis
d. Actinomycosis
Which of the following is not a clinical characteristic of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
a. Painful gingiva
b. Xerostomia
c. Fetid odor
d. Metallic taste
b. Xerostomia
Which of the following is associated with chronic osteomyelitis?
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Paget disease of bone
c. Radiation treatment involving bone
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following is not associated with the development of oral candidiasis?
a. Antibiotic therapy
b. HIV infection
c. Xerostomia
d. Herpangina
d. Herpangina
Verruca vulgaris:
a. Clinically resembles an irritative fibroma
b. Is caused by a human papillomavirus
c. Is most commonly seen on the buccal mucosa
d. Clinically resembles a pyogenic granuloma
b. Is caused by a human papillomavirus
Another name for a common wart is:
a. Papilloma
b. Verruca vulgaris
c. Condyloma acuminatum
d. Aspergillosis
b. Verruca vulgaris
Which of the following is caused by a papillomavirus and is considered a sexually transmitted disease?
a. Actinomycosis
b. Syphilis
c. Condyloma acuminatum
d. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Condyloma acuminatum
Painful oral ulcers, gingivitis, fever, malaise, and cervical lymphadenopathy in a child younger than 6 years old would cause the dental professional to suspect which of the following diseases?
A. Herpangina
B. Heck disease
C. Primary herpes simplex infection
D. Herpetic whitlow
C. Primary herpes simplex infection
The most common form of recurrent herpes simplex infection is:
a. Herpes zoster
b. Herpetic whitlow
c. Herpangina
d. Herpes labialis
d. Herpes labialis
The primary infection with the varicella-zoster virus is called:
a. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
b. Chickenpox
c. Shingles
d. Measles
b. Chickenpox
Herpangina is caused by:
a. Coxsackievirus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Epstein-Barr virus
a. Coxsackievirus
Antibody testing to determine whether a person has been infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) includes which of the following tests?
a. Schilling
b. Schirmer
c. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time
d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and Western blot
d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and Western blot
Which one of the following oral conditions is an early sign of a deficiency in the immune system and is commonly found in patients with HIV infection?
a. Erythema migrans
b. Advanced periodontitis
c. Candidiasis
d. Histoplasmosis
c. Candidiasis
Hairy leukoplakia most commonly occurs on the:
a. Buccal mucosa
b. Dorsal tongue
c. Lateral tongue
d. Soft palate
c. Lateral tongue
Which one of the following oral conditions is not a lesion associated with HIV or AIDS?
a. Candidiasis
b. Hairy leukoplakia
c. Kaposi sarcoma
d. Leukoedema
d. Leukoedema
Linear gingival erythema has specific characteristics that include spontaneous bleeding, petechiae on the attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa, and a band of erythema at the gingival margin. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. These tissues respond well to scaling and root planing
b. Excellent oral hygiene and home care techniques will eliminate these gingival conditions
c. This condition will automatically develop into advanced periodontal disease in all patients infected with HIV
d. Patients with linear gingival erythema do not respond to scaling or oral hygiene techniques; the gingival condition exists independently of the patient's oral hygiene status
d. Patients with linear gingival erythema do not respond to scaling or oral hygiene techniques; the gingival condition exists independently of the patient's oral hygiene status
Which of the following statements is false concerning primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
a. After primary herpes simplex infection, the latent infection is usually in the trigeminal ganglion
b. The virus is able to survive outside the body and is therefore easily transmitted by fomites
c. The initial oral infection is usually caused by herpes simplex virus type I
d. The herpes simplex virus altered epithelial cell is called a Tzanck cell
b. The virus is able to survive outside the body and is therefore easily transmitted by fomites
Which of the following clinical features would help differentiate between recurrent oral mucosal simplex infection and recurrent aphthous stomatitis?
a. The location of the ulcers; herpes simplex ulceration occurs on keratinized epithelium and aphthous ulcers occur on nonkeratinized epithelium
b. Systemic signs and symptoms accompany recurrent herpes simplex infection but do not accompany recurrent aphthous ulcers
c. Recurrent herpes simplex ulceration is painful; recurrent aphthous ulcers are usually asymptomatic
d. Recurrent aphthous ulcers take much longer to heal than recurrent herpes simplex ulceration
a. The location of the ulcers; herpes simplex ulceration occurs on keratinized epithelium and aphthous ulcers occur on nonkeratinized epithelium
Which of the following statements is false concerning oral human papilloma virus (HPV) infection?
a. HPV may be present in the oral mucosa without any signs or symptoms
b. HPV causes papillary oral mucosal lesions
c. HPV is transmitted by droplet infection
d. Microscopically, HPV-infected epithelial cells are called koilocytes
c. HPV is transmitted by droplet infection
Which of the following is the best diagnostic test for oral candidiasis?
a. A mucosal smear (cytologic preparation) showing fungal hyphae
b. A mucosal smear (cytologic preparation) showing Tzanck cells
c. A positive culture for Candida albicans
d. A blood test for Candida antibodies
a. A mucosal smear (cytologic preparation) showing fungal hyphae
Which of the following is the name of the oral lesions of primary syphilis?
a. Gumma
b. Mucous patch
c. Chancre
d. Verruca vulgaris
c. Chancre
All of the following statements are correct statements concerning HIV infection except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Two positive ELISA tests followed by a positive Western blot test confirms HIV infection
b. Initial infection with HIV can be asymptomatic
c. Antibodies to HIV are usually detectable in the blood by 2 weeks after infection
d. PCR is a test that measures viral load
c. Antibodies to HIV are usually detectable in the blood by 2 weeks after infection
All of the following are characteristic features of hand-foot-and-mouth disease except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Occurs in epidemics in children younger than 5 years
b. Is caused by Epstein-Barr virus
c. Is characterized by painful oral vesicles
d. Is characterized by multiple papules on the skin
b. Is caused by Epstein-Barr virus
"Strawberry tongue" is associated with which condition?
a. Herpangina
b. Scarlet fever
c. Rheumatic fever
d. Tuberculosis
b. Scarlet fever
Which one of the following is considered a deep fungal infection?
a. Median rhomboid glossitis
b. Angular cheilitis
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Herpangina
c. Histoplasmosis
Pastia lines are associated with which of the following?
a. Impetigo
b. Syphilis
c. Scarlet fever
d. Candidiasis
c. Scarlet fever
Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with impetigo?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Candida albicans
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following is a feature of secondary syphilis?
a. Chancre
b. Gumma
c. Mucous patch
d. Mulberry molar
c. Mucous patch
A fungal ball involving the sinuses may be a clinic-radiographic presentation of which of the following?
a. Aspergillosis
b. Syphilis
c. Actinomycosis
d. Candida
a. Aspergillosis
Which of the following lesions is not caused by a human herpesvirus?
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Papilloma
c. Chickenpox
d. Shingles
b. Papilloma
The virus responsible for Kaposi sarcoma is:
a. HIV
b. EBV
c. VZV
d. HHV-8
d. HHV-8
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of mucormycosis?
a. Rare fungal infection
b. Organism found in soil
c. Occurs in young children
d. Involves nasal cavity and maxillary sinus
c. Occurs in young children
A classic skin rash referred to as "sunburn with goose pimples" is seen in:
a. Impetigo
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Scarlet fever
d. Tuberculosis
c. Scarlet fever
Although the lung is the primary site for this condition, most common extrapulmonary sites include head, neck, cervical lymph nodes, larynx and middle ear. It is:
a. Impetigo
b. Tuberculosis
c. Tonsillitis
d. Mucormycosis
b. Tuberculosis
Which one of the following is caused by a fungus that is considered a common mold?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Aspergillosis
c. Verruca vulgaris
d. Actinomycosis
b. Aspergillosis
All of the following are characteristics of impetigo except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Lesions are infectious
b. Pruritis
c. High fever
d. Direct contact for transmission
c. High fever
Which condition of the tongue is associated with scarlet fever?
a. Erythema migrans
b. Cobblestone
c. Median rhomboid
d. Strawberry
d. Strawberry
What virus is most commonly associated with verruca vulgaris?
a. HPV 2
b. HPV 8
c. CMV
d. HPV 6
a. HPV 2
Operculum is most often found on which tooth?
a. Mandibular third molar
b. Deciduous second molar
c. Maxillary third molar
d. Distomolar
a. Mandibular third molar
Which one of the following conditions is not associated with HPV?
a. Verruca vulgaris
b. Cervical cancer
c. Herpes labialis
d. Heck disease
c. Herpes labialis
Which one of the following is false concerning herpes zoster?
a. VZV
b. Unilateral vesicles
c. Not contagious
d. Patients may be immunocompromised
c. Not contagious
Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex occurs most often on the:
a. Buccal mucosa
b. Hard palate
c. Lateral tongue
d. Floor of the mouth
b. Hard palate
Which of the following strains of HPV are associated with multifocal epithelial hyperplasia (Heck disease)?
a. 6 and 11
b. 13 and 32
c. 16 and 18
d. 31 and 33
b. 13 and 32
All of the following are characteristic features of mumps except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Highly contagious
b. Central nervous system can be involved
c. Two MMR doses provide immunity
d. Mumps has been eradicated in the United States
d. Mumps has been eradicated in the United States
Mumps is transmitted by all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Respiratory droplet spread
b. Bacterial infection
c. Fomites
d. Direct contact
b. Bacterial infection
COVID-19 was first reported in:
a. California
b. India
c. Brazil
d. China
d. China