QC [201-300 questions]

Proverbs 16:3

B and C

• Bisulfite

• Hydroxylamine

201. The assay of the aldehyde content in volatile oils may be by:

A. Gravimetric

B. Bisulfite

C. Hydroxylamine

D. B and C

Cassia flask

202. The glass flask used to determine ketones in volatile oils is:

A. Cassia flask

B. Babcock bottle

C. Volumetric flask

D. Iodine flask

Acetylization

203. The alcohol content of a volatile oil is determined by:

A. Bisulfite

B. Complexation process

C. Acetylization

D. A and C

Soxhlet

204. The apparatus used for extraction of drug with volatile solvents:

A. Soxhlet

B. Beaker

C. Erlenmayer flask

D. Separatory funnel

77

205. In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia flask read 2.3 mL obtained from a sample of 10 mL of the oil after treatment with KOH solution. The % phenol is:

A. 73

B. 69

C. 7.3

D. 77

Proximate

206. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloid is determined.

A. Ultimate

B. Specific

C. Proximate

D. Extraction

Residual

207. The type of titration in ultimate assay of alkaloids is:

A. Direct

B. Residual

C. Indirect

D. Blank

Methyl red

208. Recommended indicator for the assay of alkaloid:

A. Methyl orange

B. Methylene blue

C. Phenolphthalein

D. Methyl red

2.67%

209. Calculate the % alkaloid extracted from a bark of plant using 1.0215 g of the crude drug, the volume of 0.0245 N sulfuric acid added to the extract was 25.7 mL, the excess was back titrated by 21.75 mL of 0.0225 N Sodium hydroxide solution. Each mL of 0.02 N Sulfuric acid is equivalent to 3.8858 mg of the alkaloid.

A. 2.67%

B. 6.72%

C. 7.62%

D. 6.5%

3-15 µm

210. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance uses a wavelength range of:

A. 3-15 µm

B. 13-300 µm

C. 380-780 µm

D. 200-380 µm

pH Meter

211. All of the following are optical device, except:

A. pH Meter

B. Spectrophotometer

C. Colorimeter

D. Filter photometer

Fluorometry

212. A method used to assay vitamin B₁₂ and calcium panthetonate is by:

A. Iodimetry

B. Turbidimetry

C. Fluorometry

D. Iodometry

Beer's Law

213. One of the fundamental laws in spectroscopy is:

A. Law of Mass action

B. Boyle's Law

C. Beer's Law

D. Newton's Law

B and C

• Similar solutions

• SImilar preparations

214. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically with a reference standard, they are called:

A. Isomeric substances

B. Similar solutions

C. Similar preparations

D. B and C

Concentration of the drug substance

215. Beer's plot in spectrometry is prepared to determine:

A. Absorbance of the sample

B. Wavelength to be used

C. Blank

D. Concentration of the drug substance

Electromagnetic spectrum

216. The complete system of energy propagated in wave form is:

A. Wave cycle

B. Frequency

C. Electromagnetic spectrum

D. Wavenumber

KBr

217. The most commonly used matrix in pellet making:

A. KBr

B. KCl

C. NaCl

D. CsI

All of the choices

218. The unit of wavelength in spectroscopy:

A. Nanometer

B. Micrometer

C. Angstrom

D. All of the choices

Turbidimetry

219. To determine the potency of antibiotics, the assay method is:

A. Turbidimetry

B. Colorimetry

C. Nephelometry

D. Fluorometry

Fluorometry

220. Thiamine can be determined by:

A. Colorimetry

B. Nephelometry

C. Fluorometry

D. Turbidimetry

Detector

221. Photodiode or photomultiplier tube is used in UV-VIS spectrophotometer as a:

A. Radiation source

B. Monochromator

C. Detector

D. Read out device

Concentration

222. The x-axis of the Beer's plot is:

A. Absorbance

B. Transmittance

C. Concentration

D. A and B

Transmittance

223. The ratio of the intensity of the transmitted light to the original light, and is usually expressed in percentage:

A. Transmittance

B. Absorbance

C. Concentration

D. % Purity

All of the above

224. The factors that affect the light absorption of a solution:

A. Absorbing ability of the solution

B. Concentration of the solution

C. The distance traveled by the light through the solution

D. All of the above

Spectrophotometer

225. The instrument that measures the intensity of light of different wavelength:

A. Chromatograph

B. Polarimeter

C. Spectrophotometer

D. Refractometer

Graphing

226. When several sets of data are available for concentration and absorbance, the concentration of the unknown sample is calculated using this method:

A. Proportionality

B. Graphing

C. Beer's Law

D. None of the above

All of the above

227. The flame in flame spectroscopy is used:

A. To transform the sample to be analyzed from liquid or solid into vapor form

B. For decomposing the molecular compound of the investigated element into simpler molecules or atoms

C. For exciting the particles to light emission

D. All of the above

0.1549

228. Calculate the absorbance if transmittance is 70%:

A. 0.5228

B. 0.1549

C. 0.2455

D. None of the above

0.067 mg/mL

229. What would be the concentration of an unknown solution if its absorbance is 0.356 while that of the standard is 0.361? The concentration of the standard solution is 0.068 mg/mL?

A. 0.065 mg/mL

B. 0.066 mg/mL

C. 0.067 mg/mL

D. 0.068 mg/mL

1.30 M

230. The absorptivity of a particular chemical is 2.5 / M.cm. What is the concentration of a solution make from this chemical if a 1.0 cm sample has an absorbance of 3.25?

A. 0.30 M

B. 1.30 M

C. 2.30M

D. 3.30M

0.4766mg/mL

231. Calculate the sulfate content of calcium gluconate if the % transmittance reading of the sample and standard were 95% and 81% respectively. The concentration of the standard was 1.0815 mg/mL.

A. 0.4745mg/mL

B. 0.4766mg/mL

C. 0.4798mg/mL

D. None of the choices

Retention on the column

232. In Gas chromatography, the result of the assay is expressed in:

A. Retention on the column

B. Rf value

C. Volume of the gas used

D. Adsorbent

Thin Layer

233. This type of chromatography involves the spotting of a sample of a mixture at one end of an adsorbent coated glass plate:

A. Paper

B. Thin Layer

C. HPLC

D. GC

Gypsum

234. Calcium sulfate used as binder in TLC plate preparation is also known as _________ ?

A. CMC

B. Gypsum

C. Terra alba

D. Borax

Argon

235. The hollow cathode lamp contains an inert gas which is:

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Argon

D. Nitrogen

Molecular exclusion

236. This is also known as “gel filtration” or “gel permeation” chromatography:

A. Adsorption

B. Partition

C. Ion-exchange

D. Molecular exclusion

Silica gel

237. Type of stationary phase where the surface is acidic due to the presence of many silanol hydroxyl groups and suited for the analysis of amino acid and sugar:

A. Alumina

B. Silica gel

C. Polyamide

D. Cellulose

Detector

238. The part of a chromatography which measures the concentration of the sample injected on the column:

A. Injector port

B. Detector

C. Integrator

D. Pump

A and B

• Substance with high polarity and molecule weight

• Non-volatile substance

239. HPLC is the method of choice for the analysis of:

A. Substance with high polarity and molecule weight

B. Non-volatile substance

C. A and B

D. None of the above

B and C

• Argon

• Nitrogen

240. The gases as mobile phase use in Gas chromatography is:

A. Carbon

B. Argon

C. Nitrogen

D. B and C

Reversed-phase

241. Chromatographic procedure in which the non-polar solvent if fixed to the paper and acts as the stationary phase, and a polar solvent is used as the mobile phase:

A. Adsorption

B. Partition

C. Reversed-phase

D. Ion-exchange

Flow rate

242. Factors affecting column efficiency is/are:

A. Sample size

B. Flow rate

C. Temperature

D. All of the above

Potentiometer

243. The end point of a titration may be determined by the use of:

A. Refractometer

B. Spectrometer

C. Potentiometer

D. Polarimeter

25°C

244. Observation of the optical activity of official essential oils must be made at _____ °C

A. 15

B. 18

C. 25

D. 30

Polarimeter

245. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is:

A. Polarimeter

B. Refractometer

C. Spectrometer

D. Flame photometer

589 nm

246. The sodium D light has a wavelength of:

A. 586 nm

B. 587 nm

C. 588 nm

D. 589 nm

Polarimetry

247. A sensitive, non-destructive technique for measuring the “optical activity” exhibited by inorganic or organic compounds:

A. Polarography

B. Polarimetry

C. Refractometry

D. Potentiometry

100

248. The length of a polarimeter tube is expressed in decimeter and 1 decimeter is equal to _____ mm.

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

Racemic mixture

249. This does not show optical activity because the activities of the (+) and (-) forms an equal proportion. This mixture is also known as:

A. Eutectic mixture

B. Racemic mixture

C. Homogenous mixture

D. Heterogenous mixture

Wavelength

250. In refractometry, d-line of sodium is used as:

A. Wavelength

B. Frequency

C. Intensity

D. Energy

Refractive index

251. The ratio of the velocity of light in air to the velocity of light in the medium.

A. Rf value

B. Refractive index

C. Specific gravity

D. Density

A and B

• Retention factor

• Retardation factor

252. The Rf value stands for:

A. Retention factor

B. Retardation factor

C. Restriction factor

D. A and B

Total reflection borderline

253. In the refractometric measurement, it refers to the horizontal line that separate dark field from light field:

A. Total reflection borderline

B. Dual reticle

C. Measurement scale

D. Prism

B and C

• Temperature

• Wavelength

254. The factors affecting refractive index measurement is/are:

A. Sample

B. Temperature

C. Wavelength

D. B and C

0.82

255. Calculate the Rf value of the solute if the distance traveled by the solvent and sample were 83 mm and 68 mm respectively:

A. 0.72

B. 0.82

C. 0.93

D. 0.105

A and C

• Pycnometer

• Westphal Balance

256. The methods used in determining specific gravity:

A. Pycnometer

B. Refractometer

C. Westphal Balance

D. A and C

Rabbits

257. Pyrogen test is performed in:

A. Pigeons

B. Rabbits

C. Mice

D. Guinea pig

LAL method

258. Pyrogen test in vitro:

A. Colorimeter

B. Cylinder Plate method

C. Fluorophotometer

D. LAL method

Gram-negative bacteria

259. The most potent pyrogenic substance are produced by:

A. Gram-negative bacteria

B. Gram-positive bacteria

C. Fungi

D. All of them

Endotoxin

260. The substance produced by gram-negative bacteria responsible for pyrogen contamination is ________ ?

A. Endotoxin

B. Saxitoxin

C. Enterotoxin

D. Aflatoxin

Gel formation

261. The positive result obtained to indicate the presence of endotoxin using LAL test is:

A. Gel formation

B. Clear solution

C. Bubble formation

D. All of the above

Limulus polyphemus

262. LAL reagent is prepared from the circulating blood cells of the horseshoe crab, the scientific name of which is:

A. Xenopus laevis

B. Drosophilia melanogaster

C. Limulus polyphemus

D. Danio renio

Bioavailability

263. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablets:

A. Bioavailability

B. Hardness and thickness

C. Weight variation

D. Disintegration

Potency

264. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet products:

A. Disintegration

B. Purity

C. Bioavailability

D. Potency

7.5%

265. In the weight variation test, what is the acceptable range for weights between 130 and 324 mg.

A. 10%

B. 7.5%

C. 5%

D. 2%

Active ingredient

266. A content uniformity test is conducted to determine uniform amount of ________ ?

A. Additive

B. Active ingredient

C. Inactive ingredient

D. Excipients

5%

267. The USP requirement for % weight variation limit for tablets weighing 500 mg is:

A. 10%

B. 7.5%

C. 5%

D. 2%

90 - 104%

268. The USP specification for weight variation of capsule:

A. 90 - 102%

B. 90 - 104%

C. 90 - 110%

D. 90 - 115%

Content uniformity

269. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each production batch and assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay of the individual compedial monograph:

A. Content uniformity

B. Disintegration test

C. Weight variation

D. Dissolution test

1%

270. A passing tablet friability result is a maximum weight loss of not more than what percent of the weight of the tablets being tested:

A. 2%

B. 5%

C. 1%

D. None of the above

Dissolution

271. What tablet attribute is correlated with the biological availability of the active ingredient:

A. Disintegration

B. Dissolution

C. Content uniformity

D. None of the above

In simulated intestinal fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hrs. + the time specified

272. In disintegration, enteric-coated tablets must:

A. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in stimulated gastric fluid

B. Show no evidence of disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated intestinal fluid

C. In simulated intestinal fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hrs. + the time specified

D. In simulated gastric fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hrs. + the time specified

0.1170 - 0.1430 g

273. Given a tablet weight of 130 mg, what should be the acceptable tablet weight range?

A. 0.1170 - 0.1430 g

B. 0.1203 - 0.1398 g

C. 0.0300 - 0.2300 g

D. 0.0550 - 0.2020 g

10 Tablets

274. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in:

A. 10 Tablets

B. 15 Tablets

C. 20 Tablets

D. 5 Tablets

85 - 115%

275. USP limits for content uniformity is:

A. 90 - 110%

B. 90 - 100%

C. 95 - 105%

D. 85 - 115%

Bio-availability

276. It is the absolute term that indicates measurement of both the true rate and total amount of drug reaches the general circulation from an administered dosage form:

A. Bio-equivalence

B. Bio-availability

C. Dissolution

D. Disintegration

50 rpm

277. The operating speed for paddle in dissolution apparatus is _____ rpm:

A. 50

B. 100

C. 200

D. 250

Friability

278. The term used for the tendency of the tablets to crumble, chip or break:

A. Hardness

B. Thickness

C. Friability

D. Crushing

25 rpm

279. The rotation of the drum of the friabilator has a speed of _____ rpm:

A. 20

B. 25

C. 30

D. 40

29 - 32 cycle/minute

280. The device for raising and lowering that basket-rack assembly of the disintegrating apparatus has a constant frequency of _____ cycle/minute.

A. 25 - 28

B. 23 - 30

C. 29 - 32

D. 25 - 30

Self-abrasion

281. The other name for friability test for tablets:

A. Crushing

B. Self-abrasion

C. Tensile strength

D. None of the above

A and B

• Vernier caliper

• Micrometer caliper

282. The apparatus used for measuring tablet thickness is:

A. Vernier caliper

B. Micrometer caliper

C. A and B

D. None of the above

Ascorbic acid

283. The commonly used antioxidants in aqueous preparations:

A. Ascorbic acid

B. Tocopherol

C. Hydroquinone

D. Butylated hydroxytoluene

Friability

284. A tablet property related to hardness is:

A. Dissolution

B. Disintegration

C. Friability

D. Thickness

Friability

285. The ability of a tablet to withstand abrasion in packaging, handling and shipping:

A. Disintegration

B. Dissolution

C. Friability

D. Homegeinity

Hardness

286. The resistance of the tablet to chipping, abrasion, or breakage under conditions of storage, transportation, and handling before usage is:

A. Weight variation

B. Hardness

C. Thickness

D. Uniformity

Micrometer

287. Thickness is determined with a caliper which measures the thickness in:

A. Micrometer

B. Centimeter

C. Inch

D. Nanometer

40 mesh

288. The rotating basket or USP apparatus 1 has _____ mesh:

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

90 mg

292. Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date:

A. 95 mg

B. 90 mg

C. 105 mg

D. 110 mg

4.22 mm

290. What is the final reading of the thickness of the tablet using micrometer caliper if the main scale reading is 4 mm and the circular scale reading is 22?

A. 4.0 mm

B. 4.20 mm

C. 4.22 mm

D. 4.25 mm

Friabilator

291. A number of tablets are weighed and placed in the tumbling apparatus where they are exposed to rolling and repeated shocks resulting from freefalls:

A. Disintegration

B. Dissolution

C. Friabilator

D. Hardness tester

1.66%

289. In friability test, what would be the % weight loss if the initial weight of the 10 tablets was 6.7263 g and the final weight was 6.6148 g?

A. 0.65%

B. 1.66%

C. 2.15%

D. None of the above

25±2 0 C, 60±5% RH

293. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles is carried out at:

A. 23±2 0 C, 60±5% RH

B. 25±2 0 C, 60±5% RH

C. 20±2 0 C, 60±5% RH

D. None

40±2 0 C, 75±5% RH

294. Accelerated stability testing of pharmaceutical articles is carried out at:

A. 30±2 0 C, 75±5% RH

B. 35±2 0 C, 75±5% RH

C. 40±2 0 C, 75±5% RH

D. None

6 months

295. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is:

A. 6 months

B. 12 months

C. 18 months

D. None of the above

Ointments

296. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in:

A. Capsules

B. Emulsion

C. Ointments

D. Tablets

Stability testing program

297. Determine the shelf-life of a products:

A. Sampling inspection program

B. Validation program

C. Stability testing program

D. All of the above

Arrhenius equation

298. Which equation is used to predict the shelf-life of a drug product?

A. Michaelis-Menten equation

B. Hixon-Crowell equation

C. Arrhenius equation

D. Stoke's equation

Stability overage

299. The excess added to a preparation to extend its shelf-life is:

A. Manufacturing overage

B. Stability overage

C. A & B

D. None of the above

8 - 15 0 C

300. Cool temperature according to USP is equivalent to:

A. 8 - 15 0 C

B. nmt 8 0 C

C. 15 - 30 0 C

D. 30 - 40 0 C