Genital and Serology

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Last updated 6:31 AM on 6/5/26
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52 Terms

1
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What are the most common normal flora in the female genital tract?

"Lactobacilli, Staphylococcus epidermidis, streptococci, E. coli, anaerobes (Peptococci, Bacteroides), Ureaplasma urealyticum, Mycoplasma hominis."

2
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Why are diagnostic tests recommended for genital infections?

"Symptoms overlap; testing allows targeted therapy, reduces transmission, improves compliance, and avoids unnecessary antibiotics."

3
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What organism causes syphilis?

"Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum, a spirochete."

4
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Primary syphilis presentation?

Painless chancre (indurated ulcer) appearing ~10-70 days after infection.

5
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Secondary syphilis presentation?

"Generalized rash including palms/soles, lymphadenopathy, fever, systemic symptoms."

6
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Key feature of latent syphilis?

Asymptomatic period that may last years.

7
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Major manifestations of tertiary syphilis?

"Gummas, cardiovascular disease, neurosyphilis, tabes dorsalis."

8
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Congenital syphilis findings?

"Snuffles, rash, fever, hepatosplenomegaly, hydrops, thrombocytopenia."

9
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What test is RPR?

A nontreponemal test detecting antibodies to cellular damage caused by syphilis.

10
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Difference between treponemal and nontreponemal antibodies?

Treponemal antibodies are organism-specific and persist for life; nontreponemal antibodies decline over time.

11
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Most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age?

Bacterial vaginosis (BV).

12
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What microbiologic change occurs in BV?

"Loss of Lactobacillus and overgrowth of anaerobes such as Gardnerella, Mobiluncus, and Prevotella."

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Classic BV symptom?

Fishy odor with vaginal discharge.

14
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Nugent score interpretation?

"0-3 normal, 4-6 intermediate, 7-10 bacterial vaginosis."

15
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Amsel criteria for BV?

"3 of 4: pH >4.5, clue cells, positive whiff test, homogeneous discharge."

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Most common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Candida albicans.

17
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Typical VVC symptoms?

"Pruritus, soreness, dysuria, dyspareunia, thick curdy discharge."

18
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Microscopic finding in VVC?

"Budding yeast, hyphae, or pseudohyphae."

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Treatment examples for VVC?

Nystatin or miconazole.

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What organism causes trichomoniasis?

Trichomonas vaginalis.

21
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Classic trichomoniasis findings in women?

Yellow-green frothy discharge and strawberry cervix.

22
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Diagnostic wet mount finding for trichomoniasis?

Motile trichomonads with jerky/spinning motion.

23
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Best diagnostic test for Trichomonas?

NAAT (very high sensitivity and specificity).

24
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Morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

Gram-negative diplococcus.

25
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Typical gonorrhea symptoms?

Dysuria and purulent discharge; many infections are asymptomatic.

26
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Current recommended treatment for gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone; add doxycycline if chlamydia has not been excluded.

27
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Most sensitive test for gonorrhea and chlamydia?

NAAT.

28
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Major complications of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women?

"PID, ectopic pregnancy, infertility."

29
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Recommended specimens for chlamydia testing?

Vaginal/cervical swab or first-void urine.

30
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Why is Mycoplasma genitalium not visible on Gram stain?

It lacks a cell wall.

31
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Best test for Mycoplasma genitalium?

NAAT/PCR.

32
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When are pregnant patients screened for Group B Streptococcus?

36-37 weeks gestation.

33
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Why is enrichment broth used for GBS testing?

Improves recovery of GBS before culture/NAAT testing.

34
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What is serology?

Detection of antibodies (and sometimes antigens) in serum or other body fluids.

35
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When do antibodies typically first appear after primary exposure?

About 10-14 days after antigen exposure.

36
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Which antibody appears first in a primary immune response?

IgM.

37
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Which antibody predominates in a secondary immune response?

IgG.

38
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Difference between active and passive immunization?

Active = host produces antibodies; passive = antibodies transferred from another source.

39
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Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

IgG.

40
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What does IgM in a newborn suggest?

Possible in utero infection because IgM does not cross the placenta.

41
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Advantages of serology?

"Useful for unculturable, hazardous, or difficult-to-culture organisms and may distinguish recent vs past infection."

42
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Major disadvantage of serology early in infection?

False negatives before antibodies develop.

43
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Common causes of false-positive serology?

"Cross-reactivity, rheumatoid factor, autoantibodies, anti-reagent antibodies."

44
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What is a convalescent serum sample?

"A specimen collected after recovery, usually >2 weeks after the acute sample."

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What rise in antibody titer is typically diagnostic of recent infection?

Four-fold increase between acute and convalescent samples.

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What does ELISA detect?

Antigens or antibodies using an enzyme-generated signal.

47
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Most sensitive ELISA format?

Sandwich ELISA.

48
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What is a multiplex serologic assay?

A test that measures antibodies to multiple pathogens simultaneously from one sample.

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What is a titer?

Highest dilution of serum that still yields a detectable antibody response.

50
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Why are Western blots often used?

As confirmatory tests due to higher specificity.

51
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CDC Lyme disease testing algorithm?

Initial ELISA/EIA followed by a confirmatory immunoblot or second-tier assay.

52
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Why is Coccidioides often diagnosed by serology?

"Culture is slow, hazardous, and obtaining direct specimens can be difficult."