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list the PPE you need to put on when working in the microbiology lab
lab coat, lab goggles, gloves,
describe the proper handling of your cell phone, food, drinks and cosmetics in the lab
no cell phones, food, drinks, or cosmetics in the lab
describe the proper clothing to wear in the lab as well as the safe ways to wear your hair and jewelry
wear pants, close-toed shoes, hair tied up, avoid dangling jewelry
describe when you need to disinfect the benches
before and after the lab
focus a slide with bacteria under 100X objective lens using the compound microscope AND immersion oil within 10 minutes.
Start with the 4× then 10× then 40× objectives to locate the specimen
Rotate to the 100× oil-immersion objective
Place a drop of immersion oil directly on the slide
Focus the 100× objective using only the fine-focus
Only use immersion oil with the 100× objective, clean the lens with lens paper after use
identify accurately Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria on a microscope slide
Gram-positive bacteria: PURPLE/VIOLET (they have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall that retains the crystal violet-iodine complex even after decolorization)
Gram-negative bacteria: PINK/RED (their thin peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane lose the crystal violet during decolorization; they pick up the safranin counterstain)
identify accurately the shape and cell arrangement of cells on a microscope slide
Shapes: Cocci (spherical), Bacillus (rod)
Arrangements: Chains, clusters
catalase test substrate
hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂)
catalase test enzyme
catalase (produced by bacteria)
catalase test products/results
Products: Water (H₂O) and Oxygen gas (O₂)
Positive result: Bubbling when H₂O₂ is added to the culture
Negative result: No bubbles
identify an antibiotic inhibition zone obtained by the Kirby-Bauer method
The zone of inhibition is the clear area around an antibiotic disk where bacterial growth is absent on a Mueller-Hinton agar plate. The disk releases the antibiotic outward in a gradient. Bacteria unable to grow near the disk are susceptible; those growing close to or up to the disk are resistant.
accurately measure an inhibition zone of an antibiotic disk AND determine the bacteria's reaction to it - susceptible, resistant, or intermediate using an antibiotic chart
Measure the diameter of the clear zone in millimeters using a ruler
Then compare to the standardized chart for the specific antibiotic:
Susceptible (S): zone diameter ≥ susceptible breakpoint
Intermediate (I): zone diameter falls between S and R breakpoints
Resistant (R): zone diameter ≤ resistant breakpoint
describe the difference between alpha, beta, and gamma hemolytic bacteria AND be able to determine the hemolytic activity of a pathogen on a plate or a picture
Alpha (α) hemolysis: PARTIAL hemolysis of red blood cells. Appears as a GREENISH or brownish discoloration around colonies on blood agar. The RBCs are not fully lysed but the hemoglobin is oxidized.
Beta (β) hemolysis: COMPLETE hemolysis. Appears as a CLEAR, transparent zone around colonies — all RBCs are fully lysed.
Gamma (γ) hemolysis: NO hemolysis. No change in the blood agar around colonies; agar appears unchanged (red/pink).
identify the basic characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae sp.
Gram stain reaction
Gram-NEGATIVE
Cell morphology
Bacilli (rods)
Oxidase reaction
NEGATIVE
Glucose fermentation
POSITIVE (facultative anaerobes — ferment glucose)
list the selective and differential agents in MacConkey media
Selective agents: Crystal violet and bile salts → INHIBIT Gram-positive bacteria; only Gram-negatives grow
Differential agent: Lactose + neutral red indicator → differentiates lactose fermenters from non-fermenters
be able interpret the results about growth and lactose fermentation accurately (MacConkey agar)
Results:
Lactose fermenter (e.g., E. coli): PINK/RED colonies (acid production lowers pH → neutral red turns pink)
Non-lactose fermenter (e.g., Salmonella): YELLOW colonies
No growth: Gram-positive organism
know how to distinguish positive from negative reaction for the oxidase test
positive: dark blue/purple at end of q-tip
negative: no color change
carbohydrate fermentation substrate(s), type of reaction, product(s)
substrates: glucose or lactose
type of reaction: fermentation of sugar
products: pyruvic acid, H2 and CO2 (gas)
urease substrate(s), enzyme/type of reaction, product(s)
substrate: urea
enzyme: urease
products: CO₂ + ammonia
citrate substrate(s), enzyme/type of reaction, product(s)
substrate: citrate
type of reaction: citrate utilization as sole carbon source
product: alkaline products
PADase substrate(s), enzyme/type of reaction, product(s)
substrate: phenylalanine
enzyme: phenylalanine deaminase
product: phenylpyruvic acid
desulfurase substrate(s), enzyme/type of reaction, product(s)
substrate: sulfur containing compounds
enzyme: desulfurase
product: hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) gas
tryptophanase substrate(s), enzyme/type of reaction, product(s)
substrate: tryptophane
enzyme: tryptophanase
product: indole
motility substrate(s), enzyme/type of reaction, product(s)
no specific substrate/product
type of reaction: whether bacterium is motile (has flagella)
name the three bacterial properties that are tested by the SIM tube
Sulfide (H₂S) production — desulfurase activity
Indole production — tryptophanase activity
Motility — flagella presence
list the three sugars which fermentation is tested in TSI (triple sugar iron agar)
glucose
lactose
sucrose
describe how carbohydrate fermentation result is interpreted
positive (acid produced): yellow color
positive (gas produced): gas bubble trapped in Durham tube
negative: red = no fermentation, pink/magenta = alkaline shift
describe how urease result is interpreted
positive: hot pink color → ammonia turned medium pH to alkaline
negative: yellow/no color change
describe how citrate result is interpreted
positive: blue color + visible growth → pH rises, bromothymol indicator changes color
negative: green/no color change + no growth
describe how PADase result is interpreted
positive: dark green color → ferric chloride reacts with phenylpyruvic acid
negative: yellow/no color change
describe how desulfurase result is interpreted
positive: black precipitate along stab line → H₂S reacts with iron in the media to form iron sulfide
negative: no black color
describe how tryptophanase result is interpreted
positive: red ring at top → tryptophane reduced to indole
negative: yellow ring/no color change (no indole produced)
describe how motility result is interpreted
positive: cloudy growth spreading away from stab line (motile)
negative: growth only along stab line (non motile)
identify the basic characteristics of Bacillus sp.
Gram stain reaction (type of cell envelope)
gram-positive
Cell morphology and cell arrangement
rods, chains
Catalase status
POSITIVE
Oxygen requirements for growth
AEROBIC
Endospore formation
positive
Natural common habitats
soil, water, oxygen-rich environments
identify the basic characteristics of Clostridium sp.
Gram stain reaction (type of cell envelope):
gram-positive
Cell morphology and cell arrangement
rods, chains
Catalase status
NEGATIVE
Oxygen requirements for growth
ANAEROBIC
Endospore formation
positive
Natural common habitats
animal GI tracts, oxygen-free environments
describe diseases caused by B. anthracis – signs and symptoms, mode of transmission, treatment, prevention, and vaccine (if available)
Pulmonary anthrax
Signs & symptoms: cough, shortness of breath, chest pain, fever, fatigue
Mode of transmission: inhalation
Treatment: ciprofloxacin or doxycycline
Prevention: avoid infected animal product exposure
Vaccine: AVA (anthrax vaccine adsorbed)
Cutaneous anthrax
Signs & symptoms: non-painful black lesion
Mode of transmission: cut in the skin
Intestinal anthrax
Signs & symptoms: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
Mode of transmission: ingesting contaminated food
describe diseases caused by B. cereus – signs and symptoms, mode of transmission, treatment, prevention, and vaccine (if available)
Food poisoning
Signs & symptoms: nausea and vomiting, diarrhea
Mode of transmission: ingesting contaminated food
Treatment: supportive care
Prevention: proper refrigeration of food
describe diseases caused by C. perfringens – signs and symptoms, mode of transmission, treatment, prevention, and vaccines (if available)
Gas gangrene
Signs & symptoms: rapidly spreading tissue necrosis, gas bubbles in tissue, severe pain, systemic shock
Mode of transmission: spores enter through deep wounds
Treatment: surgical debridement, penicillin
describe diseases caused by C. tetani – signs and symptoms, mode of transmission, treatment, prevention, and vaccines (if available)
Tetanus (lockjaw)
Signs & symptoms: severe muscle spasms in the jaw, respiratory paralysis
Mode of transmission: spores enter through deep wounds
Treatment: tetanus immune globulin (TIG), penicillin
Vaccine: DTaP/Tdap
describe diseases caused by C. botulinum – signs and symptoms, mode of transmission, treatment, prevention, and vaccines (if available)
Botulism
Signs & symptoms: muscle paralysis, weakness, lethargy, difficulty eating, possible respiratory failure
Mode of transmission: ingesting contaminated food
Treatment: heptavalent antitoxin (HBAT), supportive care
Prevention: proper canning techniques, never give honey to infants
describe how anaerobic chambers work and their purpose
Used to grow Clostridium sp.
Gas-Pac releases CO2 and H2 → H2 binds to O2 creating water and removing it from the chamber → creates anaerobic environment for the bacteria
describe how the sodium thioglycolate test works
Used to determine an organism’s oxygen requirements
Inoculation of a species in a medium with sodium thioglycolate and L-cysteine → two compounds reduce O2 and create low oxygen environment at bottom of the tube → thioglycolate tube is inoculated with a bacterial loop → after inoculation Clostridium sp. will grow closer to the bottom in the reduced oxygen concentration
describe how the starch plate test is used to test for amylase and the role of iodine
Used to identify Bacillus sp.
Starch plate is incubated with bacteria and allowed to grow → plate is flooded with iodine → iodine binds to starch when present, turning the agar blue → if bacteria produces amylase, starch around the growth will get digested
interpret results for amylase test correctly
Amylase-positive: clear (colorless) halo surrounding a colony; larger halo = more enzyme activity
Amylase-negative: No halo (blue-grey right up to colony edge)
interpret results for sodium thioglycolate test correctly
Aerobe: Growth ONLY at the top (requires O₂)
Anaerobe: Growth ONLY at the bottom (killed by O₂)
identify the basic characteristics of Chlamydia trachomatis
Gram stain reaction (type of cell envelope)
Gram negative spheres/ovals
identify the basic characteristics of Neisseria gonorrheae
Gram stain reaction (type of cell envelope)
Gram negative cocci
describe diseases caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
Intracellular
Signs & symptoms: often asymptomatic, urogenital pain during urination/sexual intercourse, discharge, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, fever, trachoma
Mode of transmission: Direct contact with infected mucosal surfaces (sexual contact)
Treatment: antibiotics (azithromycin, doxycycline, erythromycin), recommended for partners too
Prevention: barrier methods of protection (condoms)
Complications if untreated: pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) → infertility or ectopic pregnancy, inflammation of testicles → sterility, passed from mother to newborn
describe diseases caused by Neisseria gonorrheae
Extracellular
Signs & symptoms: often asymptomatic, similar to chlamydia; pain during urination/intercourse, increased discharge, vaginal bleeding between periods, infection in the eye, mouth (sore throat), rectum
Mode of transmission: sexual contact
Treatment: single intramuscular injection of antibiotic ceftriaxone, recommended for partners too
Prevention: barrier methods of protection (condoms), antibiotic eye drops for newborns
Complications if untreated: passed from mother to newborn, infection can progress to the joints and heart
Concerns about antibiotic resistance: antibiotic resistance in Neisseria gonorrheae has been steadily increasing
describe how NAATs are used to identify pathogens
Gold-standard diagnostic method for both C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae
Able to detect a single gene from a pathogen and amplify it to about a billion copies → copies can be detected → infection will be diagnosed even in asymptomatic patients
describe how PCR works and describe the role of each component – primers, template DNA, buffer, enzyme, dNTPs
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) amplifies a specific DNA sequence exponentially. Each cycle roughly doubles the target sequence. After ~30-40 cycles, you go from a few copies to billions.
Primers: small pieces of DNA which match part of the sequence of a specific gene and are needed to start the replication of said gene
Template DNA: sample from which your fragment will be amplified
Buffer: provides optimal conditions for the enzyme
Enzyme: DNA polymerase linking the nucleotides and making the new DNA
dNTPs: new DNA – mixture of nucleotides with the four types of bases A, T, G, C
describe the outcome of a PCR reaction if a component is omitted from the reaction
NO product/poor product produced
describe the function of the three main steps in a PCR cycle
Denaturation
Temperature is brought up high to 95º C for 2 min
Temp is high enough to break down weak hydrogen bonds between complementary strands and separate them
Not high enough to break the covalent bonds holding together the nucleotides in each strand
Annealing
Temperature gets lowered to ~50º C (exact temp varies for each PCR reaction)
Since DNA strands were separated earlier, the primers will be able to anneal to the template DNA as the temperature is lowered
Elongation
Temperature is raised to 72º C which allows the DNA polymerase to bind to the primers and build the new DNA strand
DNA molecule is duplicated → PCR cycle is repeated for 30-40 cycles and creates about a billion copies of the gene
understand how to estimate the size of an unknown DNA piece using the DNA ladder on a gel or a picture of a gel
Identify and label the ladder bands with their known sizes.
Locate your unknown band in the gel lane.
Find which two ladder bands it falls BETWEEN.
Estimate size by interpolation: if the unknown band is between the 500 bp and 1000 bp bands and appears roughly halfway, estimate ~750 bp.
be able to determine if a patient is negative or positive for a pathogen based on the PCR results from a NAAT test
PCR amplifies a specific DNA fragment if the pathogen is PRESENT
Positive result: A BAND appears in the patient's lane at the expected size (matching the positive control band size, confirmed with the ladder)
Negative result: NO band appears in the patient's lane (no target DNA was present to amplify)