AFH 1 Section 11 "Security"

26E5

What is the purpose of security

Never permit the enemy to acquire an unexpected advantage

The lethal consequences of an enemy attack make the seurity of ______ forces a paramount concern

Friendly

Security applies to ____ USAF members at all times

all

Integrated defense does not stand alone to protect personnel and resources. How do planners create an effective security program

Coordination with other DOD and DAF programs

What does the protection and defense of air bases require

Coordination of emergency management, antiterrorism and other mission support function forces under the mission assurance umbrella

What program integrates multidisciplinary active, passive, offensive and defensive capabilities employed to mitigate potential risks and defeat threats to USAF ops

The USAF Integrated Defense Program

What is the goal of integrated defense

Neutralize security threats within a base boundary and the base security zone to ensure unhindered operation

Threat actors include, but are not limited to; terrorists, insiders, _____, foreign intelligence, and security services

criminals

What are the 4 potential hazards to a base

1)CBRNE attacks

2) Natural and man-made disasters

3) Major accidents

4) Accidental or deliberate release of hazardous materials, toxic industrial materials or chemicals

Integrated defense is a “All Airmen” program. What does the teaming effort create

A united, seamless defense, stronger than the defensive efforts of individuals or individual units

What does integrated defense enssure

All airmen are trained to defend themselves and integrate into defense operations

For additional information on integrated defense, refer to AFPD ____, Integrated Defense

31-1

What is the base perimeter

A physical boundary of the installation

The base boundary, as defined in JP ____, Joint Security Operations in Theater, is a line that delineates the surface area of a base for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations

3-10

The base boundary should be established with consideration for Mission, Enemy, Terrain and Weather, Time, Troops Available and Civil Considerations (METT-TC). Why are these important

Balancing these factors ensures that Integrated Defense forces can control key terrain while effectively accomplishing the mission

______ ______ may not always coincide with the fenced perimeter, property lines or legal boundaries

Base boundaries

The base security zone is a USAF-unique concept and term to be used _________ only

intra-service

How does the USAF use the planning term base security zone

Describe the area of concern around an air base into support the establishment and adjustment of the base boundary

How is the base security zone defined?

The area outside the base perimeter from which the base may be vulnerable to standoff weapons and waterborne threats

Who is responsible for identifying and arranging the base security zone to be recognized as the base boundary?

The installation commander

What happens if the base boundary does not include all of the terrain of the base securities zone?

The installation Commander must either mitigate or accept the risk of enemy attack from the terrain outside the base boundary

Commanders, execute integrated defense with the objective of achieving nine desired effects based on the risk management process. what are those side effects?

1) Anticipate

2) Deter

3) Detect

4) asses

5) Defeat

7) Delay

8) Defend

9) Recover

What is the purpose of the anticipate effect in integrated defense?

To anticipate threat intentions and actions through intelligence preparation of the operational environment or crime trend analysis

How do commanders a turf threat activity as part of integrated defense

Through active community policing, boundary and internal circulation control, controlled area marking and prudent physical security measures

What methods are used to detect threats in integrated defense?

Detection is achieved through the use of lighting, intrusion detection systems/early warning systems, close circuit television, among other methods

In integrated defense, what tools or methods are used to assess and identify friend or foe

Using cameras, posted centuries, response forces, and intrusion detection systems, among other methods

In integrated defense, how are friendly forces warned of an adversary activity?

Through mass notification systems such as radio, public address, commanders, access channels, voice, hand and arm signals, cellular telephones, and instant messenger/short message system texting

What strategies are employed to defeat threats in the integrated defense?

Threats are defeated through appropriate, progressive force application, coordinated security force response, and integration of forces

The ___ effect in integrated defense applies defense in depth procedures to delay adversaries through barriers, obstacles, technology, physical security measures, and forces

Delay

In integrated defense, the defend effect integrates all friendly forces into a single comprehensive threat and effects based plan. How is this accomplished?

By ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force

The recover effect, an integrated defense involves applying effective command and control, and developing an exercising the comprehensive emergency management plan ____

10-2

Are integrated defense desired effects randomly applied to an installation

No, they are deliberately achieved through innovative and reliable tactics, techniques and procedures based on integrated defense risk management (IDRM) process and analysis

Who is the C2 center for Integrated Defense during routing and emergency operations

Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

Who establishes a BDOC to coordinate and direct, via the operational chain of command, the tactical control of Integrated Defense forces and supporting capabilities

The Defense Force Commander

Central security control, the _____ ______ and other security forces’ control centers will operate under the BDOC’s control at all locations

law enforcement

What process enables installation commanders, integrated defense working groups, defense force commanders and defense planners to produce effects-based, integrated defense plans by using a standardized model to identify risk and develop risk management strategies

The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP)

What does the IDRMP identify

At-risk assets

In the IDRMP, what are 3 assessments are involved in developing risk reduction decision

1) Assets criticality

2) Threat

3) Vulnerability assessments

How many security protection levels are there

4

Protection level ____ is assigned to resources where loss, theft, destruction, damage, misuse or compromise would cause unacceptable mission degradation to the strategic capability of the US or catastrophic consequences to the nation

PL-1

What does PL-1 security provide

Maximum means to detect and defeat hostile force before it is able to seize, damage or destroy resources

____ security examples include nuclear weapons in storage mated to a delivery system or in transit, designated C3 facilities, and aircraft designated to transport the US President

PL-1

Protection level ____ is assigned to resources where loss, theft, destruction, damage, misuse or compromise would cause significant mission degradation to the war fighting capability

PL-2

What level of deterrence against hostile acts must PL-2 security provide

Significant levels of deterrence

What are 4 examples of PL-2 security resources

1) Non-nuclear alert forces

2) Designated space and launch systems

3) Expensive, few in numbers or one-of-a-kind systems or facilities

4) Intelligence gathering systems

Protection level ____ is assigned to resources where loss, theft, destruction, damage, misuse or compromise would cause mission degradation

PL-3

What does PL-3 security provide

Reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts

_____ security examples include non-alert resources that can be generated to alert status, selected C3 facilities, systems and equipment, and non-launch-critical or non-unique space launch systems

PL-3

Protection level ____ is assigned to resources where loss, theft, destruction, damage, misuse or compromise would adversely affect the mission

PL-4

How are PL-4 resources secured

Containing them in controlled areas with owners or users responsible for their security

What are 3 examples of PL-4 security resources

1) Facilities storing Cat I, II or III sensitive conventional arms, ammo and explosives

2) Fuels and oxygen storage

3) USAF accounting and vault areas

What is operations security purpose

To reduce the vulnerability of USAF missions by eliminating or reducing successful adversary collection and exploitation of critical information

Operation security applies to all activities that prepare, ______ or employ forces during all phases of operations

Sustain

Who recommends modifying the day-to-day activities at an installation or organization to create variations in the status quo

Operations security signature managers

Why does operations security identify, analyze, and control critical information that indicates friendly actions associated with military operations and other activities

1) Identify actions that can be observed by adversary intelligence systems

2) Determine what specific indications could be used to derive critical information in time to be useful to adversaries

3) eliminate the vulnerabilities of friendly actions to adversary exploitation

OPSEC involves examining what 4 phases of operations or activities

1) Planning

2) Preparation

3) Execution

4) Post-execution phases

OPSEC analysis helps decision makers weight the ____ to operations and decide how much they are willing to accept in particular operational circumstances

Risks

Operational effectiveness is enhanced when OPSEC is applied in the _____ phase

Planning

Why is OPSEC incorporated into day-to-day operations

To ensure seamless transition to contingency operations

What 5 distinct action constitute the OPSEC process

1) Identify critical informations

2) Analyze threats

3) Analyze vulnerabilities

4) Assess risk

5) Apply appropriate OPSEC countermeasures

What are OPSEC indicators

Friendly, detectable actions and open-source info that can be interested by an adversary to derive critical information

What is the 5 basic characteristics of OPSEC indicators that make them potentially invaluable to a adversary

1) Signatures

2) Associations

3) Profiles

4) Contrasts

5) Exposure

Information protection is a subset of the USAF security enterprise and consists of what 3 core disciplines

1) Personnel

2) Industrial

3) Information

What are the 3 core security disciplines used for

1) Determine military, civilian and contractor personnel eligibility to access classified information

2) Ensure the protection of classified information released or disclosed to industry in connection with classified contracts

3) Protect classified information and CUI that, if subject to unauthorized disclosure, could reasonably be expected to damage national security

Who is responsible for protecting classified information and CUI under their custody and control

All USAF personnel

What are the three levels of classification

1) Confidential

2) Secret

3) Top Secret

What are the three levels of classified information designed to protect

National Security

The unauthorized disclosure of information classified as _____ could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave, identifiable and describable damage to national security

Top Secret

The unauthorized disclosure of information classified as _____ could reasonably be expected to cause serious, identifiable and describable damage to national security

Secret

The unauthorized disclosure of information classified as _____ could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable and describable damage to national security

Confidential

____ refers to information created or possessed by an entity, for or on behalf of the government

CUI

Laws, regulations or government-wide policies require or permit an agency to handle CUI using safeguarding or ____ controls

dissemination

____ classification is the initial decision that an item of information could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable or describable damage to national security if subjected to unauthorized disclosure, and requires protection in the interest of national security

Original

Who may originally classify information

Officials who are designated in writing

The USAF handles classified information and CUI IAW ____ policy

National

All cleared DoD personnel are authorized to derivatively classify information, provided they have received initial training and ____ refresher training

annual

When is information derivatively classified

When it is incorporated, paraphrase, restated or generated in a new form or document

What is one of the most impoortant responsibilities of a derivative classifier

To observe and respect the classification determinations made by an original classification authority

DoDM5200.01V2_DAFMAN_______, Information Security Program: Marking of Information, is the guidance for clearly marking and identifying classified information

16-1404V2

Markings on classified material alert holders to the presence of classified information and identify the information needing protection. What are 3 more purposes

1)Indicate assigned classification level

2) provide guidance on downgrading or declassifying

3) Give information on the sources and reasons for classification

Every classified document must be conspicuously marked to show the ____ classification of information it occurs

highest

What 7 things must each classified document be marked with

1) Overall classification

2) Banner lines

3) Portion markings

4) Classification authority block

5) Date of origin

6) Downgrading instructions

7) Declassification information

What are 3 most common marking on a classified document

1) Banner lines

2) Portion marks

3) Classification authority block

Who is responsible for taking proper precautions to ensure that authorized persons do not gain access to classified information

Everyone who works with it

What are 3 things required before a person can be granted access to classified information

1) Security clearance

2) Signed SF312, Classified Information Non-Disclosure Agreement

3) A need to know

Classified material must be kept under ____ surveillance by authorized persons once removed from storage

constant

What 3 forms used to cover classified information outside of storage

1) SF 703 (TS)

2) SF 704 (S)

3 SF 705 (C)

The SF ___, Activity Security Checklist, is used to perform end of day security checks of classified material

701

How should classified information systems specifically be stored at the end of the day

In a GSA approved safe or in buildings cleared for open storage

What must you do if you find classified material out of proper control

1) Take custody and safeguard

2) Notify your security manager or supervisor

What 6 terms describe classified general security incidents

1) Infraction

2) Violation

3) Compromise

4) Loss

5) Data spill

6) Information in the public media

Describe an infraction-type security incident involving classified information

It involves a failure to comply with requirements that cannot reasonably be expected to, and does not, result in the loss of classified records, or in the suspected or actual compromise of classified information

Infractions involving classified information may be unintentional or _____

inadvertent

An infraction involving classified information requires a _____ to facilitate immediate corrective action

Inquiry

Describe an violation-type security incident involving classified information

Knowing, willful negligence regarding security regulations

What are two consequences that violations can result in, or be expected to result in

Loss or compromise of classified material

Describe a loss-type security incident involving classified information

When classified material cannot be physically located or accounted for

Describe an data spill-type security incident involving classified information

Introduction of classified data on:

1) Unclassified system

2) A IS with a lower classification

3) Systems not accredited to process data of that category

How are data spills handled

Treated as possible compromise of classified information Involving IS, networks and computer equipment until an inquiry determines whether an unatuhorized disclosure actually occurred

What should you do if classified information appears in the public media or you are approached by a media rep

Do not make any statements or comments on the accuracy of the information