CT PREP - Ch. 2 pt care

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Last updated 11:38 PM on 4/8/26
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84 Terms

1
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What kind of consent - When risks, benefits and alternatives of procedure are explained to the pt

informed, radiation risk, could find a embolism, could do without contrast

2
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Consent when pt is in immediate need of med car but is uncon or unable to consent

implied

3
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communication is key and should begin during the _______/________

scheduling/screening

4
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Before contrast studies pt should be instructed to take a

piss

5
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_________ ________ is another way to immobilize pt

bref holt

6
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Vita l signs are (4)

Temp, pulse, respiratory rate, BP

7
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What is normal range for:

Temp

pulse

resp rate

BP

97.7 - 99.5F

60-100 BPM

12-20 Brefs per minute

120/80

8
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pulse ox measures ______status. Specifically the _______level of blood, which should be between ______and______%

respiratory, O2, 95 - 100

9
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vital signs are? (4) , Normal range for each is?

temp, puls, BP, resp

Temp - 97.7 - 99.5
Pulse - 60-100 BPM

BP - <120/80

Resp - 12-20 kids 20-30

10
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atrial diastole is associated with _____wave

Ventricular systole is assoc with ___ ___ ___wave

atrial and vent diastole associated with ___ wave

P

QRS

T

11
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Cardiac CT images are acquired during systole/diastole? Particularly the ___wave

Diastole

T wave

12
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pts with with slower heartbeats yield good/shitty images?

good

13
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what type of drugs are used to slow heart rate? What is preferred heart rate for cardiac CT imaging?

B-adrenergic, 65

14
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what number of slices may preclude the need for heart slowing dugs?

64

15
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sublingual _______can be used to cause dilation/contraction of vessels

nitroglycerine, dialation

16
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Norma BUN, Creatinine and GFR numbers, BUN creat ratio

BUN - 7-25 mg/dL

Creat - .5 - 1.5 mg/dL

GFR - 70 mL/Min/m2 plus or minus 14 mmms for women, mens - 60 plus or minus 10

17
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what does prothrombin measure and what is normal range?

blood coag, 12 to 15 secs

18
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prothrombin time range

.8 - 1.2

19
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platelet count range

140K - 400K per mm squared or uL of blood

20
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D-dimer tests for

deep vein thrombosis, and PE - protein fragments from degraded blood clots

21
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coumadin or warfarin is a ______ ______

anti-coagulent, special care must be taken to avoid excessive bleeding with Iv removal

22
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Metformin or Glucophage or should not be taken ____ days before CT exam. Contrast can cause _______of it in the blood

2, retention

23
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Look at IV site pic page 9

24
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IV pokers must observe a_____ technique. It includes 3 things

hand wash, gloves, clean site with alcohol moving from center to outside

25
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exams that require sterile technique are invasive, they include (3)

biopsy, aspiration,

26
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sterile technique involves establishing a ______field around procedure and use of __________tools

sterile

27
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Bolus injection can/cannot be done by hand

can

28
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iv should be metal or plastic for CT?

plastic

29
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what gauge is suitable for contrast inject?

22

30
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how do you check for patency of vein?

backflow of blood into iv

31
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32
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2 types of con agenst

pos and neg

33
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positive con agents are radi_______, degree of opacity is directly proportional to the contrast’s concentration of _________

opaque, iodine

34
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RCM can be injected into ______and______

blood vessels, intrathecal space

35
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what is used to show GI tract?

barium sulfate

36
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osmolality means propensity to cause fluids _____of blood vessel to move _______

outside, inside

37
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ionic contrast is a salt containing three _______atoms, which dissociate into 2 _______

iodine, charged particles or ions.

38
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ionic contrast has high/low osmolarity. 2 examples

high. HOCM- high osmolar contrast medium. meglumine -Conray and diatrozoate sodium -Hypaque

39
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non ionic con does/doesn’t dissociate when injected. 2 examps

does not. Omnipaque, Isovue

40
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ionic or non ionic are most likely to produce side effects

ionic

41
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iso-osmolar contrast has same _______as blood, therefore more/less potential for side effects. example

osmolarity, less, Visipaque

42
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Enteral RCM are put in the______or up the_______ to look at the______

mouf, butthole, gi trac

43
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enteral RCM are water soluble ______solution or__________

iodine, barium

44
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RCM can be put into 4 places

veins, joints, intrathecal space gi tract

45
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osmolarity is the amount of _____s in a fluid

solutes

46
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low or high osmolarity contrast is more likely to cause side effects

high

47
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48
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each molecule of ionic contrast contains how many molecules of iodine.

3

49
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the production of two osmotic ions is indicative of high ________contrast media. two types are

osmolar, conray optiray

50
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Low osmolar contrast does/does not dissociate into two ionic molecules

does not

51
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generally an internal agent is either water-soluble _______solution or _______ sulfate

iodinated, barium

52
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contrast takes between ____and_____minutes to move thru the GI tract

30 - 90

53
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barium sulfate may/may not be used when bowel perf is suspected

not

54
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barium enemas are used to image the _____colon and

distal , rectum

55
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air gases and water are positive/negative contrast media? iodine and barium are pos/neg?

neg, pos

56
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57
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bowel wall is better enhanced with neg/POS con?

neg - air, water or gas

58
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CT imaging at the end of full resp (bref hold) improves/degrades image quality

improves

59
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neg/POS/neutral con may be used to opacify the small bowel during enterocyclis and enterography

neutral

60
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volumen is a ___% solution of barium. used to image small/large bowel

.1, small

61
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IV con is admined thru a ___to_____gauge needle

18 to 23

62
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an IV cath placed in a vein is called an _____________

angiocatheter

63
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rcm are usually admined in doses between _____to______ ml. dose depends on ______, _______and________function

50-150, age weight and renal func

64
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subclavian lines, PICC lines and access ports are common types of _________ _________ catheters

central venous

65
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For CT exams limited to abdomen, administer 300mL 30 mins before/after scan. Admin 150 mL immediately before/after scan

before, before

66
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For and AND pelvic exams admin _____mL 60-90 mins before, ____mL 30 mins before and 150 ______before

450, 300, immediately

67
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to look at the rectum admin contrast orally _____to____hrs before OR shoot it_____ ______ ______

4 to 6 up the butthole

68
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intrathecal admin of iodinated contrast means shooting it into the space surrounding the______ ______

evaluates spinal cord and _________roots

spinal cord, nerve

69
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4 H’s of contrast admin:
History of ______reactions

Hydration - before during and after especially for ______compromised individuals

HAve _______and______ready to deal with contrast reactions

Heads up - watching out for _____reactions to contrast

allergic, renally, equipment and expertise, allergic

70
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Physiologic and pathologic that may increase of adverse reacs include

Enviro/food allergies

Asthma

Renal disease

Myeloma

Diabeetus

Pherochromocytoma

sickle cell disease

hyperthy

cardiac disease

71
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contraindi for iodine con are (2)

allergy to it, renal insuff or failure

72
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io con can/cant cross placental barrier?

Adverse reacs of fetus to contrast is known/unknown

can, unknown

73
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Nursing moms are instructed to pump and discard milk
___ hrs after admin of con

24

74
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mild reacs to LOCM include

Nausea/vomit

hives

warmth/flushing

altered taste

sweats/chills

nasal stuffiness

anxiety

75
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moderate reacs to contrast include: may/will not need treatment

mild bronchspasm - treat with bronchodialator

moderate to servere hives - benadryl

vasovagal response - hypotension/fainting - treat with raised legs and IV fluids

tachycardia/hypertension

76
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severe reacs:

profound hypotension

laryngeal edema

sever bronchospasm

pulmonary edema

cardiac arrythmia

seizure

cardiopulmonary arrest

Death

77
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Contrast induced nephrotoxicity serious delayed reac, increased creatinine

78
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best prevention for CIN

hydration

79
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metformin should or should not be taken prior to CT

nope, too much strain on kids

80
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  • The _________________ refers to the spatial response of a CT scanner to a point source of radiation, indicating how well the scanner can detect and reconstruct the image of a specific slice of tissue.

  • __________is crucial for understanding the resolution and quality of the reconstructed images in computed tomography (CT).

  • It is typically represented as a function of the distance from the center of the slice, showing how sensitivity decreases as one moves away from the central axis.

slice sensitivity profile

81
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slice sensitivity profile is thinner/thicker than dose profile

thinner

82
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amount of xrays absorbed in a unit mass is called and measured in grays. < that , accounting for tissue type is called______and is measured in______

absorbed, effective Sv

83
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CT dose index is amount of radiation received in a

slice

84
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