Patient Care and Population Health Practice Flashcards

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A comprehensive deck of flashcards based on the aerospace medical specialty lecture notes covering conflict resolution, ethics, legal aspects, documentation, and various patient care conditions.

Last updated 1:47 AM on 6/10/26
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589 Terms

1
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What is the stated purpose of a survey in the health care system?

To collect feedback from customers in order to serve them better.

2
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The survey program was formally established in response to which Public Law?

National Defense Authorization Act Public Law No. 102-484

3
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What year was the National Defense Authorization Act Public Law No. 102-484 enacted?

1992

4
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What are the four specific areas the administering secretaries must determine annually through surveys?

Availability of services, Familiarity with facilities, Health status, and Satisfaction with quality.

5
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What does the acronym DHA stand for?

Defense Health Agency

6
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What does the acronym DSD stand for?

Decision Support Division

7
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Against what are health care survey results benchmarked?

National norms

8
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Which office provides direction, coordination, and oversight for all DoD-wide health care survey research?

Decision Support Division's DoD Health Care Survey Operations and Information Control

9
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What does the acronym JOES stand for?

Joint Outpatient Experience Survey

10
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What is the focus of the Joint Outpatient Experience Survey (JOES)?

The beneficiary experience with care received in military treatment flights (MTFs).

11
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What does the 'C' in JOES-C stand for?

Consumer Assessment of Health Providers and Systems (CAHPS)

12
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What is the primary purpose of the JOES-C survey?

To focus on beneficiary experience in direct and purchase care provider offices and compare results to civilian benchmarks.

13
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What website enables customers to rate services received from DoD facilities?

Interactive Customer Evaluation (ICE)

14
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What are the two categories of recommended improvement areas for processes?

For staff and for processes

15
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What is the first step in the conflict resolution process?

Define the problem

16
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What should you do during the 'Define the Problem' step of conflict resolution?

Listen and address the conflict right away.

17
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What is the second step in the conflict resolution process?

Identify solutions

18
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What actions are involved in identifying solutions during conflict resolution?

Gather information and ask open-ended questions.

19
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What is the third step in the conflict resolution process?

Choose the best solution

20
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What is step four of conflict resolution?

Implement the solution

21
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What is step five of conflict resolution?

Evaluate the results

22
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True or False: The patient is always right in every situation.

False (Transcript states: 'The patient may not always be right but arguing will only worsen the situation.')

23
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Why is it important to remain calm and professional during conflict?

In case the patient complains, a supervisor or staff member can defend your behavior.

24
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Where should you attempt to escort an agitated patient to avoid an unprofessional encounter?

A private setting or office

25
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Whom should you notify if a conflict cannot be resolved at your level?

Your supervisor or the patient advocate

26
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What pertains to the judgment and choices you must make in a given situation?

Ethics

27
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What is ethical judgment?

Making a moral decision on what should be done in a given situation.

28
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What traits make up good moral character according to ancient Grecian philosophy?

Temperance, wisdom, courage, and fortitude.

29
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What Christian attitudes contribute to moral character in health care?

Faith, hope, and clarity.

30
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What Puritan ethic is mentioned as part of moral conduct?

Industriousness

31
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What three additional traits are expected to keep a medical professional above reproach?

Confidentiality, honesty, and compassion.

32
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How is 'obligation' defined in terms of moral character?

A pull to do something based on certain character traits.

33
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Which organization has a code of ethics for Registered Nurses (RNs)?

The American Nurses Association

34
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Which organization has a code of ethics for Licensed Practical Nurses (LPNs)?

The National Federation of Licensed Practical Nurses

35
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What are three core traits required of aerospace medical service specialty providers?

Service above self, doing no harm, and treating patients with compassion.

36
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What is professionalism considered the key to?

Standards of conduct

37
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Define 'Autonomy'.

Respect for others; recognizing the right of individuals to make their own decisions.

38
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Define 'Justice' in a medical context.

Fairness

39
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What are 'Moral principles'?

General philosophical concepts pertaining to morals and ethics.

40
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What are 'Moral rules'?

Specific guidelines applied in ethical discussions or decision-making.

41
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Define 'Non-maleficence'.

The duty or responsibility to do no harm.

42
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What is considered a basic ingredient for a code of ethics?

Non-maleficence

43
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Define 'Beneficence'.

Doing good

44
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Define 'Fidelity'.

Faithfulness to do good; acting in a responsible manner.

45
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Define 'Veracity'.

Truthfulness

46
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What foundation underlies all conduct in patient care?

Respect for all individuals as human beings.

47
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What is the first step in the Standards of Conduct for Patient Care?

Respect each person as an individual.

48
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What is step two of the Standards of Conduct for Patient Care?

Know the limits of your role and knowledge.

49
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What is step three of the Standards of Conduct for Patient Care?

Perform only the tasks within the legal limits of your role.

50
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What is step four of the Standards of Conduct for Patient Care?

Perform only the tasks you have been trained to do.

51
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What documentation is required before performing a task independently?

The task must be documented and signed off by a trainer.

52
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What is step five of the Standards of Conduct for Patient Care?

Perform no act that will harm the person.

53
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What should you do if an instruction is unclear or doesn't make sense?

Clarify the direction with the nurse.

54
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What is step seven of the Standards of Conduct for Patient Care?

Follow unit policies and procedures.

55
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Why must safety always come first in task completion (Step 8)?

To ensure the task is completed safely.

56
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To whom should patient information be shared?

Only to those who need to know.

57
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How should patient privacy and property be protected (Step 10)?

By creating an environment conducive to private conversations and personal privacy.

58
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How quickly should errors and incidents be reported?

Honestly and immediately.

59
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What is step twelve of the Standards of Conduct for Patient Care?

Be accountable for your actions.

60
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What is the primary difference between patient rights and patient responsibilities?

Rights protect the patient; responsibilities protect healthcare workers and other patients.

61
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List three examples of patient rights.

Receive quality care, refuse treatment, and be treated with dignity/respect.

62
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What is the patient entitled to know before being discharged?

Information and training about self-care and follow-up care.

63
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What must the patient be provided to make a decision regarding consent?

Significant complications, risks, benefits, and available alternative treatments.

64
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What right does a patient have regarding research projects at a facility?

The right to be advised and refuse participation.

65
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List three examples of patient responsibilities.

Provide accurate medical history, inform provider if they don't understand, and assist in noise control.

66
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Who is responsible for ensuring medical records are returned to the facility after transportation to appointments?

The patient

67
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How should a medic approach care for death and dying?

Provide consistent and appropriate care regardless of prognosis, with compassion and understanding.

68
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What is the most common form of emotional support for a dying patient?

Being available as a listener.

69
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How does an infant typically view the concept of death?

No real concept; only a sense that something has changed.

70
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How do children aged 262-6 years old view death?

As temporary; they may blame themselves as punishment for being bad.

71
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What age group views death as final but thinks it only happens to other people?

6116-11 years old

72
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Which age group experiences the most difficult reactions to death due to fear of pain and suffering?

Young adults

73
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What are common concerns for middle-aged adults regarding death?

Leaving things undone, not meeting goals, and regrets for mistakes.

74
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How do elderly patients often view death?

As acceptance or welcomed freedom from pain; a chance to reunite with loved ones.

75
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What are the five stages of emotional reaction (grieving process)?

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance.

76
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In which stage does a person refuse to believe the worst?

Denial

77
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Where is anger often directed during the grieving process?

Toward family, friends, and the health care team.

78
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What is the 'Bargaining' stage?

The act of thinking 'If I just do this, then everything will be okay,' wishing for a life extension.

79
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How should you support a patient in the 'Depression' stage?

Allow expressions of sadness, be a good listener, and let the patient do most of the talking.

80
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What characterizes the 'Acceptance' stage?

Feeling calm and at peace; making logical plans to adjust to reality.

81
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Which agency operates the alert system for healthcare providers' professional credentials?

Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)

82
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What is the NPDB?

National Practitioner Data Bank

83
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What year was the NPDB established by Congress?

1986

84
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What is the main function of the NPDB as a workforce tool?

To prevent practitioners from moving state to state without disclosure of previous damaging performance.

85
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Are NPDB reports available to the public?

No, they are confidential.

86
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Which system is used to document all NPDB reports?

Centralized Credentials Quality Assurance System (CCQAS)

87
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How long does the Surgeon General have to determine standard of care after a malpractice payment notice?

180180 calendar days

88
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According to DoDI 1332.18, what must NPDB reports include for uniformed service members?

Instances where failure to meet standard of care contributed to death or disability.

89
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What does 'informed consent' mean?

The patient has given consent only after the details of the procedure have been explained.

90
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What six things must be explained for informed consent?

Reason for procedure, How it is performed, Who performs it, Risks, Other options, and Expected outcomes.

91
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From whom must consent be obtained for minors?

Parents or legal guardians

92
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What is 'implied consent'?

A legal assumption that an unconscious or incapacitated person would consent to lifesaving treatment.

93
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When does implied consent apply to minors?

When they need lifesaving treatment and parents/guardians are unavailable.

94
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What is the definition of 'Standards of Care'?

Guidelines that specify the predicted care for specific situations.

95
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What written plan often reflects a standard of care?

A protocol

96
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What are the benefits of using clinical protocols?

Offers appropriate treatment, provides training, helps with resource costing, and bolsters medico-legal robustness.

97
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What organization established the standard of care for CPR?

American Red Cross (ARC)

98
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What database contains information for all uniformed service members and family for TRICARE eligibility?

Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)

99
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Why is maintaining correct DEERS information critical?

Incorrect info can cause problems with TRICARE claims and other health benefits.

100
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What types of status changes must be updated in DEERS?

Marriage, divorce, birth, and adoption.