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What is the primary use of phalloidin staining in cell biology?
To visualize filamentous actin (F-actin)
Phalloidin binds specifically to which cellular structure?
F-actin (filamentous actin)
Why is phalloidin commonly conjugated with fluorescent dyes for microscopy?
To visualize F-actin under a fluorescence microscope
Phalloidin binding to F-actin is generally considered:
Irreversible and strong
Why is permeabilization necessary in the phalloidin staining procedure?
To allow phalloidin to enter the cells and bind intracellular F-actin
Which reagent is commonly used to permeabilize cells before phalloidin staining?
Triton X-100
What effect does phalloidin have on actin filaments?
It stabilizes and prevents depolymerization
What is the first step in a typical phalloidin staining protocol for cells?
Fixation of cells
Which fixative is most used in phalloidin staining to preserve actin filaments?
Formaldehyde (paraformaldehyde)
Phalloidin conjugated to a fluorophore is typically incubated with the sample for:
20-60 minutes
What is the purpose of washing the cells after phalloidin incubation?
To remove unbound phalloidin and reduce background fluorescence
After phalloidin staining, the sample is usually mounted with:
Mounting medium containing an anti-fade reagent
What is the primary purpose of cell culture in biological research?
To grow cells outside their natural environment for experimental purposes
Which of the following is a common basal medium for mammalian cell culture?
DMEM
Which of the following is essential for maintaining cell growth in culture?
All of the above (sterile conditions, appropriate pH & temperature, nutrients & growth factors)
Trypsin is used in cell culture primarily for:
Detaching adherent cells from the culture vessel
Contamination in cell culture is most caused by:
All of the above (viruses, fungi, bacteria)
Fetal bovine serum (FBS) is added to cell culture media to:
Provide nutrients, hormones, and growth factors
A monolayer culture refers to:
Which method is commonly used to check cell viability?
Trypan blue exclusion assay using automatic counter
Which of the following is a common feature of immortalized cell lines?
Ability to divide indefinitely
Which condition is critical for preventing bacterial contamination in cell culture?
All of the above (working in a biosafety cabinet, using autoclaved instruments and media, regularly disinfecting surfaces)
What is the function of HEPES in cell culture media?
Maintains pH stability
Which method is used to freeze mammalian cells for long-term storage?
Gradual freezing with cryoprotectants like DMSO
In a culture flask, cells begin to grow and cover the entire surface. This phase is called:
Confluence
What is the primary purpose of cell culture media?
To provide nutrients, growth factors, and an appropriate environment for cells
The role of glucose in cell culture media is to:
Act as a carbon and energy source
Which of the following steps is essential before using media for cell culture?
Sterilization through filtration or autoclaving
Antibiotics like penicillin-streptomycin are added to media to:
Prevent bacterial contamination
L-glutamine is added to cell culture media because it is:
An essential amino acid for protein synthesis
When preparing media, why is sterile filtration often preferred over autoclaving for heat-sensitive components?
It prevents degradation of vitamins, growth factors, and amino acids
Phenol red in culture media acts as:
A pH indicator
Which of the following practices ensures media sterility after preparation?
All of the above (working in a laminar flow hood, using sterile bottles and pipettes, avoiding repeated exposure to air)
Which of the following structures is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?
Nucleus
What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus, eukaryotic cells have a nucleus
Which of the following is a common feature of prokaryotic cells?
Circular DNA
In prokaryotic cells, where is the genetic material primarily located?
Nucleoid region
Which of the following components is found in the cell wall of most prokaryotes?
Peptidoglycan
What is the function of the flagella in prokaryotic cells?
Movement
Which of the following processes is typical for prokaryotic reproduction?
Binary fission
What term describes the hair-like structures used by some prokaryotes for attachment to surfaces?
Pili (or fimbriae)
Which of the following best describes the size of prokaryotic cells compared to eukaryotic cells?
Smaller
Prokaryotic ribosomes are classified as:
70S
Which of these groups are prokaryotes?
Archaea and Bacteria
In prokaryotes, plasmids are:
Circular DNA molecules separate from chromosomal DNA
Which organelle is known as the “control center” of the eukaryotic cell
Nucleus
Which of the following structures is found in eukaryotic cells but NOT in prokaryotic cells?
Mitochondria
What type of DNA does eukaryotic cells typically have?
Linear DNA wrapped around histones
Which organelle is responsible for energy production in eukaryotic cells?
Mitochondrion
Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?
Packaging and transporting proteins
Eukaryotic ribosomes are classified as:
80S
Which organelle contains enzymes to break down waste and cellular debris?
Lysosome
Which of the following organelles is responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells?
Chloroplast
The cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells is important for:
Maintaining cell shape and movement
Which of the following is NOT a membrane-bound organelle in eukaryotic cells?
Ribosome
Which part of the eukaryotic cell is involved in synthesizing lipids and detoxifying chemicals?
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur in eukaryotic cells?
S Phase
Which organelle modifies proteins and packages them into vesicles for transport?
Golgi Apparatus
What type of eukaryotic cells lacks a cell wall?
Animal cells
What is the primary function of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells?
ATP Production
Which organelle helps in detoxifying harmful substances and contains catalase enzyme?
Peroxisome
Which cytoskeletal element is primarily responsible for cell division by forming the mitotic spindle?
Microtubules
Which eukaryotic organelle contains its own DNA and is believed to have originated from a symbiotic relationship with bacteria?
Mitochondria
What is the key feature that allows Sanger sequencing to terminate DNA extension?
Use of dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs)
Why do dideoxynucleotides cause chain termination?
They lack a 3′ hydroxyl group
In modern Sanger sequencing, fluorescent dyes are typically attached to:
ddNTPs (dideoxynucleotides)
What is the first step of the Sanger sequencing workflow?
DNA denaturation
In Sanger sequencing electropherograms, a peak with two overlapping colors typically indicates:
Heterozygosity at that nucleotide position
Which enzyme is used in Sanger sequencing?
DNA polymerase I (Klenow fragment) in classical methods
Capillary electrophoresis separates fragments based on:
Fragment size/length
Typical read length for Sanger sequencing is:
500–1000 bp
Sanger sequencing is best suited for:
Small targeted regions (e.g., single gene mutations)
In dye‑terminator sequencing, each of the four ddNTPs
Has its own unique fluorescent label
The template strand in Sanger sequencing must be:
Single‑stranded DNA or denatured dsDNA
If the primer anneals at the wrong location, the most likely issue is:
Low annealing temperature
The final output of Sanger sequencing is a:
Chromatogram with colored peaks
Which component is essential for initiating DNA synthesis in Sanger sequencing
A single, sequence‑specific primer
In capillary electrophoresis, DNA fragments move toward which electrode
Anode
Which of the following is TRUE for Sanger sequencing compared to whole genome sequencing?
Sanger produces longer reads
A double peak at a single position suggests:
Mixed template (e.g., heterozygote)
A sequencing reaction contains four separate tubes in classical Sanger sequencing. What does each tube contain?
Only one type of ddNTP
A sequencing reaction yields very short fragments only. What is a common cause?
Only one type of ddNTP
Nanopore sequencing is particularly useful for:
Detecting structural variants and large genomic rearrangements
Which template type is MOST problematic for Sanger sequencing?
Mixed plasmids
Which step in Sanger sequencing is responsible for separating DNA fragments by length?
Capillary electrophoresis
Why is only one primer used in Sanger sequencing?
To prevent exponential amplification
If the sequencing machine detects overlapping fluorescent signals, it may miscall a base due to:
Incomplete separation of fragments
What is the basic principle of nanopore sequencing?
Measurement of changes in ionic current as nucleic acids pass through a nanopore
Which company developed the MinION device for nanopore sequencing?
Oxford Nanopore Technologies
What is a major advantage of nanopore sequencing compared to second-generation sequencing?
Generates long reads in real time
What type of molecules can nanopore sequencing analyze?
DNA and RNA
What controls the speed of DNA translocation through the nanopore
Motor proteins
Which signal is measured in nanopore sequencing?
Ionic current disruption
Why must DNA damage be repaired?
DNA damage can lead to cancer
A permanent change in the DNA sequence is called:
Mutation
Which inherited disease mentioned in the presentation is caused by DNA mutation?
Sickle Cell Anemia
Which of the following is NOT a cause of DNA damage?
Ribosomes
Approximately how many DNA damages can occur per cell per day?
1 million
DNA damage can be broadly classified into:
Single base changes and structural changes
Deamination of cytosine converts it into:
Uracil