Scientific Research Final

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Last updated 7:10 PM on 5/4/26
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234 Terms

1
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What is the primary use of phalloidin staining in cell biology?

To visualize filamentous actin (F-actin)

2
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Phalloidin binds specifically to which cellular structure?

F-actin (filamentous actin)

3
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Why is phalloidin commonly conjugated with fluorescent dyes for microscopy?

To visualize F-actin under a fluorescence microscope

4
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Phalloidin binding to F-actin is generally considered:

Irreversible and strong

5
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Why is permeabilization necessary in the phalloidin staining procedure?

To allow phalloidin to enter the cells and bind intracellular F-actin

6
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Which reagent is commonly used to permeabilize cells before phalloidin staining?

Triton X-100

7
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What effect does phalloidin have on actin filaments?

It stabilizes and prevents depolymerization

8
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What is the first step in a typical phalloidin staining protocol for cells?

Fixation of cells

9
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Which fixative is most used in phalloidin staining to preserve actin filaments?

Formaldehyde (paraformaldehyde)

10
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Phalloidin conjugated to a fluorophore is typically incubated with the sample for:

20-60 minutes

11
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What is the purpose of washing the cells after phalloidin incubation?

To remove unbound phalloidin and reduce background fluorescence

12
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After phalloidin staining, the sample is usually mounted with:

Mounting medium containing an anti-fade reagent

13
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What is the primary purpose of cell culture in biological research?

To grow cells outside their natural environment for experimental purposes

14
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Which of the following is a common basal medium for mammalian cell culture?

DMEM

15
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Which of the following is essential for maintaining cell growth in culture?

All of the above (sterile conditions, appropriate pH & temperature, nutrients & growth factors)

16
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Trypsin is used in cell culture primarily for:

Detaching adherent cells from the culture vessel

17
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Contamination in cell culture is most caused by:

All of the above (viruses, fungi, bacteria)

18
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Fetal bovine serum (FBS) is added to cell culture media to:

Provide nutrients, hormones, and growth factors

19
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A monolayer culture refers to:

20
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Which method is commonly used to check cell viability?

Trypan blue exclusion assay using automatic counter

21
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Which of the following is a common feature of immortalized cell lines?

Ability to divide indefinitely

22
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Which condition is critical for preventing bacterial contamination in cell culture?

All of the above (working in a biosafety cabinet, using autoclaved instruments and media, regularly disinfecting surfaces)

23
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What is the function of HEPES in cell culture media?

Maintains pH stability

24
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Which method is used to freeze mammalian cells for long-term storage?

Gradual freezing with cryoprotectants like DMSO

25
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In a culture flask, cells begin to grow and cover the entire surface. This phase is called:

Confluence

26
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What is the primary purpose of cell culture media?

To provide nutrients, growth factors, and an appropriate environment for cells

27
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The role of glucose in cell culture media is to:

Act as a carbon and energy source

28
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Which of the following steps is essential before using media for cell culture?

Sterilization through filtration or autoclaving

29
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Antibiotics like penicillin-streptomycin are added to media to:

Prevent bacterial contamination

30
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L-glutamine is added to cell culture media because it is:

An essential amino acid for protein synthesis

31
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When preparing media, why is sterile filtration often preferred over autoclaving for heat-sensitive components?

It prevents degradation of vitamins, growth factors, and amino acids

32
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Phenol red in culture media acts as:

A pH indicator

33
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Which of the following practices ensures media sterility after preparation?

All of the above (working in a laminar flow hood, using sterile bottles and pipettes, avoiding repeated exposure to air)

34
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Which of the following structures is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?

Nucleus

35
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What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus, eukaryotic cells have a nucleus

36
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Which of the following is a common feature of prokaryotic cells?

Circular DNA

37
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In prokaryotic cells, where is the genetic material primarily located?

Nucleoid region

38
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Which of the following components is found in the cell wall of most prokaryotes?

Peptidoglycan

39
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What is the function of the flagella in prokaryotic cells?

Movement

40
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Which of the following processes is typical for prokaryotic reproduction?

Binary fission

41
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What term describes the hair-like structures used by some prokaryotes for attachment to surfaces?

Pili (or fimbriae)

42
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Which of the following best describes the size of prokaryotic cells compared to eukaryotic cells?

Smaller

43
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Prokaryotic ribosomes are classified as:

70S

44
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Which of these groups are prokaryotes?

Archaea and Bacteria

45
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In prokaryotes, plasmids are:

Circular DNA molecules separate from chromosomal DNA

46
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Which organelle is known as the “control center” of the eukaryotic cell

Nucleus

47
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Which of the following structures is found in eukaryotic cells but NOT in prokaryotic cells?

Mitochondria

48
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What type of DNA does eukaryotic cells typically have?

Linear DNA wrapped around histones

49
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Which organelle is responsible for energy production in eukaryotic cells?

Mitochondrion

50
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Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?

Packaging and transporting proteins

51
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Eukaryotic ribosomes are classified as:

80S

52
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Which organelle contains enzymes to break down waste and cellular debris?

Lysosome

53
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Which of the following organelles is responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells?

Chloroplast

54
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The cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells is important for:

Maintaining cell shape and movement

55
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Which of the following is NOT a membrane-bound organelle in eukaryotic cells?

Ribosome

56
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Which part of the eukaryotic cell is involved in synthesizing lipids and detoxifying chemicals?

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

57
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During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur in eukaryotic cells?

S Phase

58
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Which organelle modifies proteins and packages them into vesicles for transport?

Golgi Apparatus

59
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What type of eukaryotic cells lacks a cell wall?

Animal cells

60
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What is the primary function of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells?

ATP Production

61
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Which organelle helps in detoxifying harmful substances and contains catalase enzyme?

Peroxisome

62
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Which cytoskeletal element is primarily responsible for cell division by forming the mitotic spindle?

Microtubules

63
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Which eukaryotic organelle contains its own DNA and is believed to have originated from a symbiotic relationship with bacteria?

Mitochondria

64
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What is the key feature that allows Sanger sequencing to terminate DNA extension?

Use of dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs)

65
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Why do dideoxynucleotides cause chain termination?

They lack a 3′ hydroxyl group

66
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In modern Sanger sequencing, fluorescent dyes are typically attached to:

ddNTPs (dideoxynucleotides)

67
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What is the first step of the Sanger sequencing workflow?

DNA denaturation

68
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In Sanger sequencing electropherograms, a peak with two overlapping colors typically indicates:

Heterozygosity at that nucleotide position

69
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Which enzyme is used in Sanger sequencing?

DNA polymerase I (Klenow fragment) in classical methods

70
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Capillary electrophoresis separates fragments based on:

Fragment size/length

71
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Typical read length for Sanger sequencing is:

500–1000 bp

72
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Sanger sequencing is best suited for:

Small targeted regions (e.g., single gene mutations)

73
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In dye‑terminator sequencing, each of the four ddNTPs

Has its own unique fluorescent label

74
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The template strand in Sanger sequencing must be:

Single‑stranded DNA or denatured dsDNA

75
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If the primer anneals at the wrong location, the most likely issue is:

Low annealing temperature

76
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The final output of Sanger sequencing is a:

Chromatogram with colored peaks

77
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Which component is essential for initiating DNA synthesis in Sanger sequencing

A single, sequence‑specific primer

78
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In capillary electrophoresis, DNA fragments move toward which electrode

Anode

79
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Which of the following is TRUE for Sanger sequencing compared to whole genome sequencing?

Sanger produces longer reads

80
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A double peak at a single position suggests:

Mixed template (e.g., heterozygote)

81
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 A sequencing reaction contains four separate tubes in classical Sanger sequencing. What does each tube contain?

Only one type of ddNTP

82
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A sequencing reaction yields very short fragments only. What is a common cause?

Only one type of ddNTP

83
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Nanopore sequencing is particularly useful for:

Detecting structural variants and large genomic rearrangements

84
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Which template type is MOST problematic for Sanger sequencing?

Mixed plasmids

85
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Which step in Sanger sequencing is responsible for separating DNA fragments by length?

Capillary electrophoresis

86
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Why is only one primer used in Sanger sequencing?

To prevent exponential amplification

87
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If the sequencing machine detects overlapping fluorescent signals, it may miscall a base due to:

Incomplete separation of fragments

88
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What is the basic principle of nanopore sequencing?

Measurement of changes in ionic current as nucleic acids pass through a nanopore

89
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Which company developed the MinION device for nanopore sequencing?

Oxford Nanopore Technologies

90
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What is a major advantage of nanopore sequencing compared to second-generation sequencing?

Generates long reads in real time

91
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What type of molecules can nanopore sequencing analyze?

DNA and RNA

92
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What controls the speed of DNA translocation through the nanopore

Motor proteins

93
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Which signal is measured in nanopore sequencing?

Ionic current disruption

94
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Why must DNA damage be repaired?

DNA damage can lead to cancer

95
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 A permanent change in the DNA sequence is called:

Mutation

96
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Which inherited disease mentioned in the presentation is caused by DNA mutation?

Sickle Cell Anemia

97
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Which of the following is NOT a cause of DNA damage?

Ribosomes

98
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 Approximately how many DNA damages can occur per cell per day?

1 million

99
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DNA damage can be broadly classified into:

Single base changes and structural changes

100
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Deamination of cytosine converts it into:

Uracil