Rocky Final Exam Review

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Last updated 1:37 PM on 4/29/26
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70 Terms

1
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Which recombinant virus is commonly used as a vaccine vector for feline leukemia virus (FeLV) DNA in cats?

Canary pox virus

2
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The molecule beta2-microglobulin is an integral structural component of which MHC molecule?

MHC class I molecules

3
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Term: Bacterin

Definition: A vaccine containing killed bacteria.

4
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Substances added to vaccines specifically to enhance the immune responsiveness to the antigen are called _____.

Adjuvants

5
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In neutrophils which disease is characterized by the failure of the nucleus to separate into distinct lobes?

Pelger-Huet anomaly

6
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What is considered the most important clinical sign of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) in a foal?

Lymphopenia

7
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The use of a piece of an animal's own leg vein to repair its own coronary artery is an example of an _____.

Autograft

8
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What is the most predominant cellular lesion seen in foals with combined immunodeficiency?

Loss of both B and T cells

9
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Which specific immune cell type is predominantly infected by Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?

CD4+ T lymphocyte

10
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Major changes in the antigenic structure of influenza viruses are known as antigenic _____.

Shift

11
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The BoLA (Bovine Leukocyte Antigen) complex is the MHC found in which species?

Cattle

12
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Which immune cell type is the primary mediator of acute allograft rejection?

Cytotoxic T cells

13
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How does the innate defense factor lysozyme exert its bactericidal action?

By splitting the peptidoglycan layer in the bacterial cell wall.

14
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Which disease is caused by an excessive or repeated dose of a foreign antiserum?

Serum sickness

15
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Which general category of vaccine is typically considered unsafe for administration to pregnant animals?

Modified-live vaccine

16
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What is the primary mechanism by which antibodies protect a host against viral infection?

By blocking viral absorption to host cells.

17
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Compared to modified-live what is the major disadvantage of active immunization using killed vaccines?

Induces a slow onset of immunity

18
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A blue-smoke Persian cat with lightened coat color and abnormally large intracytoplasmic granules in phagocytes likely suffers from _____.

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

19
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A high level of eosinophils in the blood (eosinophilia) is most suggestive of which type of disease?

Parasitic disease

20
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By what mechanism does lactoferrin in milk inhibit bacterial growth?

By capturing free iron to make it unavailable to bacteria.

21
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What is a significant safety risk associated specifically with the use of modified-live vaccines?

Residual virulence or reversion to virulence.

22
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What is the primary reason vaccines often fail to work in very young infants?

Presence of maternal antibodies

23
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Which immunoglobulin isotype is the most important for immunity against large helminthic parasites?

IgE

24
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Endogenously processed viral antigens in a lung fibroblast are presented by MHC class I molecules to which immune cells?

CD8+ cytotoxic lymphocytes

25
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Why do nude mice or neonatally thymectomized animals fail to reject transplants?

They lack mature T helper and T cytotoxic cells.

26
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What is the primary mechanism of resistance to disease caused by Clostridium tetani?

Toxin neutralization by antibody

27
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Which substance is the most commonly used depot adjuvant in killed vaccines?

Aluminum hydroxide

28
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Which protozoan parasite demonstrates sequential antigenic variation in its most extreme form?

Trypanosomes

29
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Hyperacute transplant rejection is most frequently a problem in which type of transplantation?

Xenograft

30
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Which two types of grafts do not trigger immunological rejection?

Autografts and Isografts

31
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Cyclic hematopoiesis in gray Collie dogs is characterized by 10-day normal cycles followed by 5-6 days of low numbers of _____.

Neutrophils

32
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The major clinical disease resulting from the transplantation of bone marrow allografts is _____.

Graft-versus-host disease

33
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Which helper T cell subset primarily mediates immunity to large helminth parasites?

Th2 cells

34
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Eosinophilic granules contain _____ Basic Protein which is toxic to large parasites.

Major

35
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The milk ring test is a diagnostic tool used to identify which bovine disease?

Bovine brucellosis

36
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A graft of tissue between individuals of the same species but different genetic backgrounds is called an _____.

Allograft

37
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In which veterinary species has vaccine-induced sarcoma been reported most frequently?

Cats

38
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MHC class II molecules are primarily expressed on which three cell types?

B cells

39
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In Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS) the autoimmune attack targets which specific glands?

Lacrimal glands

40
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The detection of autoantibodies that block acetylcholine receptors is indicative of which disease?

Myasthenia gravis

41
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Abruptly stopping the use of prednisone after prolonged treatment can lead to an _____.

Adrenal Crisis

42
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Animals that develop autoantibodies against their own cell nuclei and DNA suffer from which disease?

Systemic lupus erythematosus

43
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Which tissue sample is required to diagnose Pemphigus foliaceous in a dog?

Skin

44
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Tumor cells can evade T-cell detection by decreasing the expression of surface _____ molecules.

MHC

45
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What is the major pathologic finding in a kidney that has undergone hyperacute rejection?

Extensive destruction of blood vessels

46
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Ophthalmic drops containing which immunosuppressive drug are used to treat Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca in cats?

Cyclosporine

47
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The detection of _____ Cells in a blood smear is a diagnostic test for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.

LE

48
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In Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) autoantibodies target the membranes of which cells?

Erythrocytes (RBC)

49
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Autoantibodies against the intracellular cement substance binding keratinocytes indicate which disease?

Pemphigus

50
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Which organ or tissue can often be allografted without the concern for immunological rejection?

The cornea

51
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Rheumatoid factor

An autoantibody directed against normal immunoglobulin.

52
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Which drug acts as a selective immunosuppressant commonly used to prevent allograft rejection?

Cyclosporine

53
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Autoimmune thrombocytopenia is characterized by the depletion of which blood component?

Platelets

54
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A Holstein calf with persistent neutrophilia but no pus formation at infection sites likely has Leukocyte _____ deficiency.

Adhesion

55
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Which diagnostic test is specifically used to identify Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia?

Direct Coomb's Test

56
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Which quick-acting drug is used both for treatment and as a diagnostic agent for Myasthenia gravis?

Edrophonium chloride

57
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Technically because it carries paternal antigens, the fetus is considered a(n)

Allograft

58
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Immunity against cancer cells is primarily mediated by Macrophages & dendritic cells.

True

59
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How are organisms for modified-live vaccines most commonly produced?

Passaging in tissue cultures

60
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Which avian lymphoid organ is considered both a primary and secondary lymphoid organ?

Bursa of Fabricius

61
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The avian counterpart to mammalian IgG is often called _____.

IgY

62
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"In the T cell receptor (TCR) complex which membrane protein is responsible for transducing the activation signal?"

CD3

63
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"In the event of a major epidemic with a new viral pathogen which treatment would be most effective for immediately reducing deaths?"

Antiserum

64
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Immunization with a live-virus vaccine is generally contraindicated in which condition regarding feline health?

Cats with FIV infection

65
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Which disease is characterized by a 96/100 score indicating it is not reported in tigers but seen in cattle and cats?

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

66
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After vaccination of a dog antibody to canine distemper generally appears in the serum after approximately _____ days.

6-7

67
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Which chemical is commonly used in the preparation of killed vaccines to inactivate the pathogen?

Formalin

68
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Against which condition could the immune system autonomously mount an effective activity unlike most cancers?

Cutaneous warts

69
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A lack of CD11b/CD18 molecules on neutrophils is diagnostic for which condition in Holstein calves?

Bovine leukocyte adherence deficiency

70
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The T cell receptor is primarily made up of which two types of chains in the majority of T cells?

⍺ and β