Part B Exam - Unit 10

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121 Terms

1
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In general, relative humidity should be kept between:

30% and 70%

2
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Rooms on the _____ side should be kept warmer in winter.

North

3
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Fixed outdoor air percentage systems do not respond well to:

Weather changes

4
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On cold winter days, more air will be:

Recirculated

5
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On hot summer days, more ___________ is drawn in.

Outdoor air

6
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When a mixture hits dewpoint, the mixture is said to be:

Saturated

7
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From a health standpoint, the relative humidity should be kept between:

35% to 50%

8
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What does it mean if a slight condensation appears on the corners of the window panes?

The building has reached its maximum permissible value with relation to the outside temperature

9
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How should plate units be maintained?

They should be soaked in a slightly acidic solution, then washed in soapy water

10
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What is the most versatile industrial/commercial humidifer?

Air washers

11
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Why should air washers be installed on the suction side?

So it can be maintained slightly below atmospheric pressure

12
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When used for humidification, the air washer spray water must be:

Heated above the dew point

13
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When used for both heating and humidification, the air washer spray water must be:

Heated above the dry-bulb temperature

14
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The steam pressure in the steam grid humidifier must be around:

35 to 70 kPa

15
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Why is it not recommended to use an on-off control for a steam grid humidifier?

Because fogging, overheating, and fluctuations in the RH may occur

16
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What is the purpose of a baffle in the steam grid humidifier?

It knocks down any condensate formed in the supply line

17
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In clean steam humidification, the connecting piping must be made of:

Stainless steel

18
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How often should you flush the humidification system?

Weekly

19
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Air pressure is normally:

Slightly above atmospheric

20
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The static pressure can be read by connecting the manometer at a __________ to the ducts.

Right angle

21
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Why is the conversion of pressure and velocity never 100% efficient?

Due to eddy currents

22
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In centrifugal fans, air enters near:

The axis of the wheel

23
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Where is the outlet located in centrifugal fans?

Tangentially to the fan wheel

24
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The fan housing of centrifugal fans is of the _________ shape.

Scroll or volute

25
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What are the types of centrifugal fans? (4)

Backward inclined

Forward curved

Backward inclined airfoil

Radial

26
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What characteristics does an FC fan have compared to a BI fan?

Can operate at a much lower speed, but consumes much more power and is less efficient

27
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Why is the BI fan also called a non-overloading fan?

It has relatively constant power requirements for a given speed

28
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Why is the FC fan also called an overloading fan?

Power requirements will increase with changes to airflow, which causes the motor to overload

29
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The difference between axial flow fan curves and the other two fan curves are the slopes of the:

Horsepower and static pressure

30
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BI fans and FC fans are both logical choices when:

Large volumes of air must be moved at low pressures

31
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Direct drives are normally used on:

Smaller air moving equipment

32
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Which drive is used on most HVAC applications?

V-belt drives

33
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To minimize vibration problems on the V-belt drive, use:

Balanced sheaves

34
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It is customary for the manufacturer to supply a _______________ when the motor size is 5.6 kW or smaller.

Fixed pitch fan sheave

35
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An _______________ is available for sizes 7.5 kW or larger.

Adjustable pitch motor sheave

36
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Why do better quality belt guards have a facing of expanded wire mesh?

To allow inspection of belts while they are in motion

37
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What permits measurement of the fan and motor speed without removal of the belt guard?

Tachometer holes

38
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Which volume control is the most efficient?

Variable speed motor control

39
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VFDs control speed and torque by controlling:

The input frequency and voltage

40
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Which volume control is the least efficient?

Outlet damper control

41
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The outlet damper control is used on fans with:

Constant speed

42
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How does the variable inlet vane control reduce energy consumption?

By controlling the amount of air spin

43
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In the natural air intake & mechanical exhaust, the pressure in the building is:

Slightly lower than atmospheric pressure

44
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In the mechanical air intake & natural exhaust, the pressure in the building is:

Slightly higher than atmospheric pressure

45
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While operating a mechanical air intake & mechanical exhaust, a concern for the operator is maintaining:

Positive building static pressure

46
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If people are having trouble opening or closing doors using mechanical air intake & mechanical exhaust:

The building might have incorrect static pressure

47
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Dry filters are efficient when screening:

Dust and lint

48
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Bag type and wedge type dry filters have a very large filtering area and are made from:

A special modacrylic fibre

49
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Rotating filters are less expensive, and thus are used to:

Capture larger particles that would plug up the more expensive filters

50
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What is the most common filter type used?

Viscous impingement filters

51
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An air velocity of _____ m/s is common for viscous impingement filters.

2.5

52
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What material should you use for viscous impingement filters?

Fibreglass

53
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Which filter must use multistage filtering?

HEPA filters

54
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In electrostatic precipitators, alternate plates are _________ charged with _____ VDC.

Negatively, 6000

55
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What is placed ahead of the electrostatic precipitator to filter any large particles?

Throwaway dry filters

56
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Which air filter is the best filter for the removal of fine dust, smoke, and fumes?

Electrostatic precipitators

57
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Charged members in charged-media electronic air cleaners are _____ VDC.

12000

58
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What is an advantage of the charged-media electronic cleaner?

Even if the power supply fails, the filter media will still act as an impingement filter

59
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What are some disadvantages of the charged-media electronic cleaner?

It offers resistance to airflow, and the medium needs replacing at regular intervals

60
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Which filter has low efficiency in dust removal?

Air washers

61
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Odour adsorbers contain _________ or _________ that adsorb odour-causing gases up to about _____%.

Carbon

Potassium permanganate

20

62
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Sometimes, odour adsorbers may be reactivated by heating it to ____degC.

540

63
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In areas required to be bacteria-free and mould-free, use:

Germicidal lamps

64
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Duct systems are classified by:

Pressure and velocity

65
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By increasing the size of the ducting, what will decrease?

Air friction and resistance airflow

66
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What are the materials used in sheet metal duct?

Galvanized or black steel

67
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What is the advantage of using galvanized steel?

It has corrosion resistance

68
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What are black steel heavy gauge sheets used for? (3)

Kitchen exhaust ducts

Ducting protected with waterproofing mastic coatings

Drain pans

69
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What are cement asbestos ducts used for?

Buried exhaust of corrosive material

70
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How is the air handling unit connected to the duct work?

With a flexible connector to reduce vibration and sound transmission

71
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Ducts of large dimensions must:

Be provided with stiffeners or be diagonally creased

72
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The ratio of the slope should be:

1 in 7

73
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What may be used in ductwork to increase velocity?

Mitre elbows

74
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Short radius elbows should be provided with:

Turning vanes

75
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Fire dampers with fusible links set for about ____degC must be installed in ducts.

70

76
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Air leakages from ducts vary from __________%.

5 to 30

77
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When the entire supply duct is outside the conditioned space, assume ____% leakage.

10

78
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When the entire return air duct is outside the conditioned space, assume ____% seepage.

3

79
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Seepage may increase the load on the air system in terms of:

Volume of air

80
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Duct liners consist of flexible or semi-rigid fibreglass blankets to:

Help withstand erosive air velocities

81
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Refer to NFPA _____________ on duct lining materials.

Standard 90A

82
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When should acoustical liners not be used for thermal insulation?

If the duct wall temperature can fall below the dew point of the air flowing in the duct

83
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What are the two different types of modulating dampers?

Mixing boxes, face and bypass dampers

84
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Relief dampers can be compared to:

A check valve

85
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The relief damper is also referred to as a:

Backdraft damper

86
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Why are single blade dampers restricted to small sizes?

Because of the difficulty of securing proper operation with high velocity air

87
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Parallel blade dampers are best suited for what kind of damper operation?

Two-position

88
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Opposed blade dampers are superior when:

A modulation of airflow is required

89
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It is important to locate air intake louvres away from:

Exhaust air streams

90
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The diffuser ____________ and is the most common terminal air distribution device.

Reduces the velocity of air

91
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Sound-absorbing material must be:

Porous

92
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One of the most effective locations for sound-absorbing lining is in the:

Suction and discharge plenum of the fan

93
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Short length steam coils are ____ m or less.

1.1

94
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Most freeze-up problems occur in steam coils handling:

100% outside air

95
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What should you do for a less chance of freeze-up in coils with long tubes?

Use a two-position control valve and preheat coil

96
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The preheating coil should not be used to increase the temperature to more than ____degC.

18

97
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Coils with long tubes are used when there is a __________% fresh air makeup.

35 to 100

98
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The damper motor of the coil with long tubes must be of the ______ type.

Spring return

99
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It is a good practice to select steam coils so that at least ____% of the coil capacity is used.

40

100
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High-pressure drop across the valve is desirable, as long as the drop is ____% of its initial steam pressure.

50