Pharmaceutics II Exam 4

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Last updated 4:44 PM on 4/17/26
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104 Terms

1
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Describes the efficiency of drug elimination from the body. It is defined as the hypothetical volume of plasma from which a drug is completely and irreversibly removed per unit of time (e.g., L/h or mL/min)

Clearance

2
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This is the sum of all individual organ clearances (e.g., renal, hepatic)

Total body clearance

3
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Along with the volume of distribution, this is a primary pharmacokinetic parameter that reflects fundamental biochemical and physiological processes

Clearance

4
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If you know the elimination rate constant (k) and the volume of distribution (Vd), you can find the ________

Clearance

5
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For a fixed Vd, a decrease in clearance leads to a _______ in k, which in turn increases the half-life

Decrease

6
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For a given dose, the overall drug exposure (AUC) is inversely proportional to ________

Clearance

7
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If clearance goes down (due to organ impairment), the drug stays in the body longer, and exposure (AUC) goes ___

Up

8
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Rate of blood entering the organ

Q

9
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The fraction of drug entering the organ that is cleared

E

10
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Individual organ clearance can never exceed the _______ ______ rate to that organ

Blood flow

11
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The volume of plasma cleared of a drug by the kidneys per unit of time; involves filtration, secretion, and reabsorption

Renal clearance

12
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Passive process; limited to unbound (free) drug and small molecules (<70 kD)

Filtration

13
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Active process; uses carriers; can be saturated; not affected by protein binding

Secretion

14
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Passive process; dependent on urine pH and drug ionization

Reabsorption

15
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What is the normal glomerular filtration rate?

120 mL/min

16
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When renal clearance > GFR, active _________ is occurring

Secretion

17
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When renal clearance < GFR, passive _________ is occurring or the drug is highly protein-bound

Reabsorption

18
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Used as a biomarker for renal function (estimating GFR) because it has minimal protein binding, secretion, or reabsorption

Creatinine

19
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For weak bases, _______ urine increases ionization, which prevents reabsorption and increases clearance

Acidic

20
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For weak acids, _______ urine will increase clearance

Basic

21
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Large drugs (like monoclonal antibodies >70 kD) have low renal clearance because they are too big to be _______ by the glomerulus

Filtered

22
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If a patient has kidney injury, their renal clearance decreases. This results in a _______ k, an increased half-life, and an increased AUC; requires a dose decrease

Decreased

23
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One-compartment assumption is instantaneous and rapid _________

Distribution

24
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Two-compartment assumption is distribution to some tissues is ____

Slow

25
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Two-compartment model; highly perfused tissues like the blood, heart, liver, and kidneys; distribution here is rapid

Central compartment

26
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Two-compartment model; tissues with lower perfusion or higher drug affinity, such as fat, muscle, and cerebrospinal fluid; distribution here is slow

Peripheral compartment

27
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Represents transfer rate from central to peripheral compartment

k12

28
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Represents transfer rate from peripheral back to central compartment

k21

29
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Represents elimination rate constant (drug is only eliminated from the central compartment)

k10

30
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Represents the initial fast decline in plasma concentration

Alpha

31
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Represents the slower, terminal decline after equilibrium is reached

Beta

32
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Alpha is always ______ than beta; the alpha term approaches zero quickly, while the beta term dominates at later time points

Alpha

33
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Represents the total drug exposure over time

AUC

34
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You must wait until _________ equilibrium before taking a plasma sample in two-compartment system to ensure the Cp accurately reflects drug levels in all tissues

Distribution

35
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A large ________ _______ can cause toxicity because of the initial high concentration in the central compartment before it has time to distribute to other tissues

Loading dose

36
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Provides immediate delivery of the full dose, resulting in the highest concentration and most rapid effect. However, it cannot maintain a steady concentration and dosing errors can be dangerous

IV Bolus

37
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Provides slow, sustained delivery. It allows for precisely controlled administration and maintains constant plasma levels over long periods while minimizing fluctuations

IV Infusion

38
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In IV infusion, the drug enters the body at a ________ rate (Q) - zero-order input

Constant

39
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In IV infusion, the drug leaves the body at a rate ________ to its concentration (first-order elimination)

Proportional

40
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Occurs when the rate of drug intake equals the rate of drug elimination (input = output)

Steady state

41
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Theoretically, it takes an infinite amount of time to reach 100% steady-state

True steady-state

42
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Defined as reaching 95% of the steady-state concentration

Practical steady-state

43
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The time to reach steady-state is ________ of the infusion rate (Q); depends only on the drug’s half-life

Independent

44
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It takes approximately _____ half-lives to reach practical steady-state

4.32

45
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The concentration at steady-state is directly proportional to the _________ rate

Infusion

46
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If a drug has a long half-life, it takes too long to reach steady-state concentration; a ______ _____ is used to reach the desired concentration instantly

Loading dose

47
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Once the infusion stops, the drug clears the body following ____-order elimination, just like an IV bolus

First

48
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Increasing infusion rate _______ concentration at steady state

Increases

49
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Increasing half-life __________ concentration at steady-state

Increases

50
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Increasing clearance _________ concentration at steady state

Decreases

51
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Increasing half-life _______ time to reach steady-state

Increases

52
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Increasing clearance _______ time to reach steady-state

Decreases

53
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At steady-state, the elimination rate is exactly _____ to the infusion rate

Equal

54
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If you have the infusion rate (Q) and the steady-state concentration, you can always find _________

Clearance

55
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The infusion process is _____-order (constant rate)

Zero

56
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The elimination process is typically _____-order

First

57
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Describes how a drug enters and leaves the body after being swallowed; unlike an IV bolus, it has an absorption phase

Oral dosing

58
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Oral dosing usually follows a ____-compartment model

One

59
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In oral dosing, both absorption and elimination typically follow ____-order kinetics

First

60
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Absorption rate constant

ka

61
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Elimination rate constant

k

62
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Typically ka is ______ than k (the drug absorbs faster than it is eliminated)

Greater

63
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The rate of drug entering the body is higher than the rate leaving (kaDa > kD)

Absorption phase

64
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Rate of absorption equals the rate of elimination (dD/dt = 0)

tmax

65
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Most of the drug has been absorbed, so the rate of drug leaving exceeds the rate entering (kaDa < kD)

Elimination phase

66
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Oral dosing, is tmax dose dependent?

No

67
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Oral dosing, is Cmax dose dependent?

Yes

68
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Oral dosing; is AUC dose dependent?

Yes

69
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If ka increases, tmax ________ (reaches peak faster)

Decreases

70
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If you double the dose, Cmax _______

doubles

71
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The fraction of the dose that actually reaches the systemic circulation

F

72
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Compares the oral dose to an IV bolus (the “gold standard” where F = 100%)

Absolute bioavailability

73
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Compares two different non-IV dosage forms (e.g., tablet vs. solution)

Relative bioavailability

74
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If you are switching a patient from an IV to oral, the oral dose must be ________ to achieve the same AUC

Higher

75
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Predicts absorption based on solubility and permeability

BCS

76
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High solubility and high permeability

Class 1

77
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Low solubility and high permeability

Class 2

78
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High solubility and low permeability

Class 3

79
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Low solubility and low permeability

Class 4

80
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For a generic drug to be approved, it must be ________ _______ to the brand name (RLD)

Therapeutically equivalent

81
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Same API, same strength, and same dosage form

Pharmaceutical equivalence

82
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Statistically equivalent Cmax and AUC

Bioequivalence

83
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The difference between the test and reference product for Cmax and AUC should be less than _____ to be bioequivalent

20%

84
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Generics use an ________, which requires bioequivalence studies but not new clinical safety/efficacy trials

ANDA

85
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The FDA’s official list of approved drug products with therapeutic equivalence evaluations

Orange Book

86
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Designed to maintain prolonged therapeutic activity by giving doses at repeating intervals

Multiple dosage regimen

87
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What parameters do not change with the number of doses in multiple dosage regimen?

k, Vd, Cl

88
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Occurs when the amount of drug eliminated during one dosing interval equals the dose administered; input=output

Steady-state

89
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Cssmax increases if dose _______ or T _________

Increases or decreases

90
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Cssavg is determined by the _______ _______

Dosing rate

91
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Cssavg is not the arithmetic average of Cmax and Cmin because drug elimination is ________, not linear

Exponential

92
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Measures the “swing” between peak and trough

Fluctuation factor

93
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Fluctuation factor depends solely on the ______ ________ (and the patient’s k)

Dosing interval

94
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As dosing interval (T) increases, fluctuation _______

Increases

95
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Compares steady-state concentrations to the first dose

Accumulation factor

96
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If you increase the dosing interval (T), accumulation factor ________ because there is more time for the drug to be removed

Decreases

97
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Oral Cssmax is always ______ than IV

Lower

98
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Oral Cssmin is always _______ than IV

Higher

99
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Fluctuation is always ______ for oral dosing because the absorption phase “smooths” the curve

Lower

100
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Used to achieve steady-state concentrations instantaneously

Loading dose