CHAPTER 51-53

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Last updated 6:47 AM on 4/18/26
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200 Terms

1
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During an ultrasound exam, the fetus is noted to be lying perpendicular to the maternal spine. What is the fetal lie?

Transverse

2
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During an ultrasound exam, the fetal head is visualized in the lower uterine segment just above the symphysis pubis. Which presentation is this?

Vertex (cephalic)

3
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The fetus is noted to have its head toward the uterine fundus, with the buttocks closest to the cervix. This describes:

Breech

4
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Ultrasound shows the femurs flexed at the hips, with the lower legs extended upward toward the fetal face. This is:

Frank breech

5
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Which breech presentation is characterized by both hips and knees flexed?

Complete breech

6
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A fetus demonstrates one foot presenting closest to the cervix on ultrasound. What is the presentation?

Footling breech

7
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Which sonographic finding is most consistent with a breech presentation?

Buttocks or lower extremities in the lower uterine segment

8
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Which breech presentation is most associated with the need for cesarean delivery?

Complete breech

9
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On ultrasound, the fetal head is located in the uterine fundus while the lower extremities are visualized near the cervix. This most likely represents:

Breech presentation

10
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Which breech presentation is most commonly considered safe for external cephalic version to facilitate vaginal delivery?

Frank breech

11
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In a third-trimester breech presentation, the fetal head is most likely to appear:

Elongated and dolichocephalic

12
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When documenting a fetus in transverse lie, which of the following should be reported?

Position of fetal head (right or left) and spine orientation

13
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When a fetus is in an oblique lie, what is the MOST appropriate method of documentation?

Report which quadrant contains the head and the direction of the spine

14
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On a normal fetal situs exam, the stomach should be visualized on which side?

Left

15
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Which structure is normally located on the fetal RIGHT side?

Gallbladder

16
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The cardiac apex in a normal fetus should point toward which side?

Left

17
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During a transverse scan of the fetal abdomen, the aorta is identified. Where should it be located?

Left of midline, anterior to spine

18
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Which statement correctly describes the location of the inferior vena cava (IVC)?

Right of midline, slightly anterior to the aorta

19
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The cerebellum is best evaluated in which scan plane?

Axial posterior fossa angled inferior from BPD plane

20
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What is the normal sonographic appearance of the fetal cerebellum?

Dumbbell-shaped structure with two hemispheres

21
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The “banana sign” is associated with which condition?

Chiari II malformation

22
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The choroid plexus is best visualized in which plane?

Axial at level of lateral ventricles

23
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What is the normal sonographic appearance of the choroid plexus?

Echogenic butterfly pattern

24
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The “dangling choroid plexus” sign indicates:

Ventriculomegaly

25
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The cisterna magna is located:

Posterior to the cerebellum

26
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What is the normal measurement range of the cisterna magna?

3–11 mm

27
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Obliteration of the cisterna magna is associated with:

Chiari II malformation

28
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The lateral cerebral ventricles are evaluated in which plane?

Axial at atrial level

29
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What measurement defines ventriculomegaly?

≥ 10 mm

30
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The midline falx appears as:

Two linear echogenic lines dividing hemispheres

31
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Absence of the midline falx suggests:

Holoprosencephaly

32
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The cavum septi pellucidi (CSP) is best visualized:

At BPD level anterior to thalamus

33
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Absence of the CSP is most strongly associated with:

Agenesis of corpus callosum

34
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At the level above the lateral ventricles, two linear echogenic structures are seen lateral and parallel to the falx. These represent:

White-matter tracts

35
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White-matter tracts are located:

At the level of the lateral ventricles

36
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The MOST important structure used to assess ventriculomegaly at the atrial level is:

Choroid plexus (glomus)

37
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At the atrial level, the choroid plexus should normally appear:

Filling the ventricle completely

38
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A “floating” or “dangling” choroid plexus most strongly indicates:

Ventriculomegaly

39
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Which structure is located at the BPD (widest diameter) level?

CSP, thalami, corpus callosum; frontal horns

40
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At the BPD level, the thalami appear:

Heart-shaped

41
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The apex of the thalami heart shape points toward the fetal:

Occiput

42
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Which structure is NOT part of the posterior fossa level?

CSP

43
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Cisterna magna measurement is taken from:

Vermis to occipital bone inner table

44
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Which structure is highly pulsatile at the cerebral peduncle level?

Circle of Willis

45
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At the cerebral peduncle level, the Circle of Willis appears:

Triangular

46
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Which structure separates the anterior and middle cranial fossae?

V-shaped sphenoid

47
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The skull base includes:

Anterior, middle, and posterior fossae

48
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The choroid plexus primarily produces:

CSF

49
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CSF flows from the lateral ventricle to the third ventricle through the:

Foramen of Monro

50
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The nuchal fold scan plane includes:

CSP, cerebellum, and cisterna magna

51
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A nuchal fold measurement >6 mm is MOST associated with:

Trisomy 21

52
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Normal nuchal fold measurement up to 20 weeks is:

≤ 5 mm

53
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Normal fetal brain parenchyma appears:

Hypoechoic

54
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The hypoechoic appearance of fetal brain tissue is due to:

High water content and small reflectors

55
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Which structures are evaluated in the fetal profile (sagittal) view?

Frontal bone, nasal bone, lips, chin

56
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Which abnormality can be detected in the sagittal facial profile view?

Micrognathia

57
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Which condition CANNOT be reliably excluded in the profile view?

Cleft soft palate

58
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Which structures are assessed in the coronal facial view?

Upper lip, orbits, lens, nasal septum, maxilla, palate (limited), zygomatic bone, mandible

59
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Which abnormality is best detected in the coronal face view?

Cleft lip

60
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Coronal facial view is used to assess:

Hyper/hypotelorism

61
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Which structures are seen at the transverse orbital level?

Orbital rings, IOD, OOD/BD

62
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Which condition is excluded at the orbital level?

Anophthalmia

63
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Absent nasal bone is associated with ALL EXCEPT:

Turner syndrome (Monosomy X)

64
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Absent nasal bone is found in approximately:

25–33% of Down syndrome fetuses

65
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Normal fetuses show:

Present nasal bone

66
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Macroglossia is associated with:

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome and aneuploidies

67
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IOD is measured as:

Inner orbit to inner orbit

68
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OOD is measured as:

Outer orbit to outer orbit

69
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Frontal bossing is associated with:

Skeletal dysplasia

70
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Frontal slanting is associated with:

Microcephaly

71
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Cleft lip is best ruled out in:

Coronal view

72
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Which one of the following structures carries oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava (IVC)?

Ductus venosus

73
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Which one of the following terms indicates that the fetal head is toward the fundus of the uterus?

Breech

74
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At what gestational week does the volume of amniotic fluid stop increasing?

34th

75
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Which one of the following indicates that the liver is on the right, the stomach is on the left, and the heart apex is on the left?

Normal situs

76
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The widest transverse diameter of the skull and the proper level to measure the biparietal diameter (BPD) includes which one of the following structures?

Thalamus

77
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The three vessels found in the umbilical cord are which of the following?

Two arteries and one vein

78
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Normally, the fetal bladder empties at least every ______

60 minutes

79
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Because of the low-density brain tissue, the texture of the brain may appear ___

Hypoechoic

80
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The cavum septum pellucidi is observed anterior to the ____

Thalamus

81
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The profile view of the fetal face is important to examine to rule out all of the following abnormalities except:

Cleft soft palate

82
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Fetal anatomy may be assessed accurately after ____

18 menstrual weeks

83
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In the transverse plane, an abnormal fetal spine may appear splayed in all of the following configurations except:

Y shaped

84
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When evaluating the fetal spine, aligning the transducer is an ______ axis to the spinal element is important

Perpendicular

85
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Which one of the following structures shunts blood away from the lungs?

Ductus arteriosus

86
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Dilation of the entire ventricular system, including the fourth ventricle, is associated with which one of the following abnormalities?

Spinal defects

87
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In the sagittal scan of the vertebral column, the normal appearance is:

Two curvilinear lines forming a “railway sign”

88
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The “railway sign” in the sagittal plane is produced by:

Posterior and anterior laminae and spinal cord

89
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In the sagittal plane, an abnormal spinal defect is indicated by:

Discontinuity of parallel lines

90
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Loss of which feature accompanies sagittal spinal defects?

Posterior skin border

91
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In the coronal scan, the normal vertebral column shows:

Two parallel columns

92
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In the coronal plane, spinal defects are identified by:

Splaying or widening of parallel lines

93
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Which scan plane is most important for detecting spinal defects?

Transverse

94
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In the transverse plane, a normal closed neural tube is indicated by:

Three equidistant echoes forming a circle or triangle

95
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In the transverse plane, an open neural tube defect is suggested by:

Pedicles splayed in V-, C-, or U-shape

96
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For accurate spinal assessment, the transducer must be:

Perpendicular to spinal elements

97
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The three ossification points of a vertebra include all EXCEPT:

Spinous process

98
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In open spina bifida (meningomyelocele), the skin integrity is:

Absent

99
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In fetuses with open neural tube defects, the membrane overlying the defect is:

Absent

100
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During evaluation, what must be confirmed in each spinal segment?

Skin integrity