Cardiac med comparisons, review, MCs

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Last updated 1:52 PM on 6/19/26
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324 Terms

1
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Most common ACE inhibitor?

Lisinopril

2
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Most common beta blocker?

Metoprolol

3
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Most common loop diuretic?

Furosemide (Lasix)

4
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Most common thiazide diuretic?

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

5
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Most common K-sparing diuretic?

Spironolactone

6
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Most common osmotic diuretic?

Mannitol

7
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Most common carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

Acetazolamide

8
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Which antihypertensive class commonly causes dry cough?

ACE inhibitors

9
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ACE inhibitor vs ARB: major difference?

ARBs less likely to cause cough/angioedema

10
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Which RAAS blocker class causes hyperkalemia?

ACE inhibitors, ARBs, direct renin inhibitors

11
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Which RAAS blocker class is contraindicated in renal artery stenosis?

ACEIs and ARBs

12
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Which fetal complication occurs with RAAS blockers?

Oligohydramnios

13
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Which medication class commonly reduces antihypertensive efficacy?

NSAIDs

14
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Why do NSAIDs reduce antihypertensive efficacy?

Block prostaglandins

15
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Which antihypertensive class should not be stopped abruptly?

Beta blockers

16
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Why should beta blockers not be stopped abruptly?

Rebound adrenergic activity → angina/MI

17
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Beta blockers can mask what dangerous condition?

Hypoglycemia

18
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Which beta blocker type is preferred in asthma/COPD?

Cardioselective beta blockers

19
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Why avoid nonselective beta blockers in asthma?

Beta-2 blockade → bronchospasm

20
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What medication causes additive bradycardia with beta blockers?

Digoxin

21
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What antihypertensive class commonly causes bradycardia?

Beta blockers

22
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Which antihypertensive class commonly causes bronchospasm?

Beta blockers

23
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Which diuretic causes blue urine?

Triamterene

24
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Which diuretic class causes ototoxicity?

Loop diuretics

25
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Which loop diuretic is safest in sulfa allergy?

Ethacrynic acid

26
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Which diuretic class causes hyperuricemia/gout?

Thiazides

27
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Which diuretic class causes metabolic acidosis?

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

28
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Which diuretic class is weakest overall?

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

29
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Which diuretic class is IV only?

Osmotic diuretics

30
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Which diuretic class is used for cerebral edema?

Osmotic diuretics

31
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Which diuretic class is first-line for HTN?

Thiazides

32
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Which diuretic class is strongest for emergent fluid reduction in CHF?

Loop diuretics

33
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Which diuretic class is safer in diabetes?

Thiazide-like diuretics

34
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Which diuretic class is safer with reduced creatinine clearance?

Thiazide-like diuretics

35
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What medication toxicity increases with hypokalemia?

Digoxin toxicity

36
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Classic signs of digoxin toxicity?

Anorexia, N/V, paresthesias, confusion

37
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Which antihypertensives improve survival after MI?

ACE inhibitors and beta blockers

38
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Which direct vasodilator is used for hypertensive emergency?

Nitroprusside

39
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Which direct vasodilator is used for pre-eclampsia HTN?

Hydralazine

40
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Which direct vasodilator is reserved for refractory severe HTN despite diuretic + 2 agents?

Minoxidil

41
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Which direct vasodilator commonly causes reflex tachycardia?

Hydralazine

42
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Why are beta blockers combined with hydralazine?

Reduce reflex tachycardia

43
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Which direct vasodilator opens ATP-sensitive potassium channels?

Minoxidil

44
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Which direct vasodilator classically causes hirsutism?

Minoxidil

45
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Which direct vasodilator causes sodium and water retention?

Minoxidil

46
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Which direct vasodilator can increase ICP?

Minoxidil

47
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Which direct vasodilator dilates veins more than arteries?

Nitroprusside

48
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Which direct vasodilator dilates arteries more than veins?

Minoxidil

49
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Which direct vasodilator is limited to short-term use (1-3 days)?

Nitroprusside

50
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Which direct vasodilator has cyanide toxicity risk?

Nitroprusside

51
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Which direct vasodilator has thiocyanate toxicity risk?

Nitroprusside

52
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Which direct vasodilator causes hydralazine-induced lupus syndrome?

Hydralazine

53
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A patient receiving IV antihypertensive infusion develops tinnitus and hyperreflexia. Which toxicity is suspected?

Thiocyanate toxicity

54
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Which medication/toxicity is associated with almond breath and lactic acidosis?

Nitroprusside; cyanide toxicity

55
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Why are PDE-5 inhibitors contraindicated with nitroprusside?

Risk of profound hypotension

56
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Which CCB is most commonly used for BP control?

Amlodipine

57
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Which non-dihydropyridine CCB is MC used for rate control?

Diltiazem

58
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Which CCB is used after subarachnoid hemorrhage for vasospasm?

Nimodipine

59
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Which CCB subclass is most associated with bradycardia?

Non-dihydropyridines

60
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Which CCB subclass is contraindicated in heart block?

Non-dihydropyridines

61
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Which CCBs are contraindicated in wide-complex ventricular tachycardia?

Diltiazem and verapamil

62
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A patient on a CCB develops bilateral lower-extremity edema. What drug class is responsible?

Calcium channel blockers

63
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Gingival hyperplasia is classically associated with what medication class?

CCBs

64
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Which CCB interaction can worsen bradycardia?

Digoxin

65
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Vitamin D and calcium supplements reduce effectiveness of what class?

CCBs

66
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Which centrally acting alpha-agonist is preferred in pregnancy?

Methyldopa

67
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Which centrally acting alpha-agonist is available in patch form?

Clonidine

68
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Which centrally acting alpha-agonist treats opioid withdrawal?

Clonidine

69
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What major adverse effect pattern do clonidine and methyldopa share?

Increased parasympathetic effects/sedation

70
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Which centrally acting alpha-agonist can cause hemolytic anemia?

Methyldopa

71
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Which centrally acting alpha-agonist can cause positive Coombs test?

Methyldopa

72
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Which centrally acting alpha-agonist commonly causes rebound HTN after abrupt discontinuation?

Clonidine

73
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Why does clonidine withdrawal cause rebound HTN?

Norepinephrine surge from alpha-2 receptor downregulation

74
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Which centrally acting alpha-agonist should NOT be stopped abruptly?

Clonidine

75
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Which centrally acting alpha-agonist is contraindicated in active liver disease?

Methyldopa

76
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A pregnant patient with HTN needs therapy. Which drug is preferred?

Methyldopa

77
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A patient abruptly stops BP medication and develops rebound hypertension. Which drug is likely?

Clonidine OR Methyldopa

78
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A patient develops positive Coombs test and elevated LFTs on antihypertensive therapy. Which drug is responsible?

Methyldopa

79
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What pump does digoxin inhibit?

Na/K ATPase pump

80
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How does digoxin increase intracellular calcium?

Na/K ATPase inhibition

81
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What cardiac effect of digoxin increases cardiac output?

Positive inotropy

82
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What heart-rate effect of digoxin occurs?

Negative chronotropy

83
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What electrolyte abnormality increases digoxin toxicity risk?

Hypokalemia

84
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What electrolyte abnormality decreases digoxin effectiveness?

Hyperkalemia

85
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Why does hypokalemia increase digoxin toxicity?

Less potassium competition at Na/K ATPase

86
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Which antiarrhythmic increases digoxin concentration?

Amiodarone

87
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Which antiarrhythmic classically increases digoxin toxicity?

Quinidine

88
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Which CCB increases digoxin concentration?

Verapamil

89
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High-fiber meals decrease effectiveness, what medication?

Digoxin

90
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Which herbal supplement decreases digoxin effect?

St. John's wort

91
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What antidote treats digoxin toxicity?

Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)

92
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What therapeutic range is monitored for digoxin?

0.8-2 ng/mL

93
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A patient on digoxin becomes hypokalemic after laxative use. What risk increases?

Digoxin toxicity

94
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A patient on digoxin starts verapamil and develops arrhythmia symptoms. What is suspected?

Digoxin toxicity

95
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A patient with AV block should avoid which inotrope?

Digoxin

96
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What medication class does sacubitril/valsartan belong to?

ARNI

97
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Why is valsartan included with sacubitril?

Blocks increased angiotensin II from neprilysin inhibition

98
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What beneficial mediators increase with neprilysin inhibition?

Natriuretic peptides

99
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What are the major effects of natriuretic peptides?

Decrease BP and cardiac hypertrophy

100
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What adverse effect risk increases if ARNIs are combined with ACE inhibitors?

Angioedema