West Coast EMT Block 1 all quiz questions
Call Kai
Learn
Practice Test
Spaced Repetition
Match
Flashcards
Knowt Play1/160
There's no tags or description
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced | Call with Kai |
|---|
No analytics yet
Send a link to your students to track their progress
161 Terms
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
3 multiple choice options
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
C. continue to be nonjudgemental, compassionate, and respectful.
3 multiple choice options
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
C. Paramedic.
3 multiple choice options
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:
C. Paramedic.
3 multiple choice options
Continuing education in EMS serves to:
C. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.
3 multiple choice options
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:
C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
3 multiple choice options
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:
B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
3 multiple choice options
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
C. individual EMT
3 multiple choice options
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
3 multiple choice options
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on:
D. EMS research.
3 multiple choice options
The EMT certification exam is designed to:
D. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
3 multiple choice options
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:
C. state office of EMS.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?
C. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?
D. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?
C. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS?
A. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?
C. Automated external defibrillation.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?
B. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
3 multiple choice options
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?
D. Off-line
3 multiple choice options
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.
B. 72
3 multiple choice options
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
D. you have been exposed to TB.
3 multiple choice options
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include:
B. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.
3 multiple choice options
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
D. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery.
3 multiple choice options
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT:
D. carbon dioxide deficiency.
3 multiple choice options
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:
C. offer little or no side protection.
3 multiple choice options
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:
B. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
3 multiple choice options
The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called:
D. resilience.
3 multiple choice options
The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:
D. wear at least three layers of clothing.
3 multiple choice options
The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is:
D. ensuring your personal safety.
3 multiple choice options
The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
B. substandard or inappropriate patient care.
3 multiple choice options
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
Select one:
D. wash your hands in between patients contacts.
3 multiple choice options
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to:
D. careless handling of sharps.
3 multiple choice options
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you:
B. have been infected with hepatitis A in past.
3 multiple choice options
Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
C. animals or insects.
3 multiple choice options
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?
B. Ensure the vehicle is stable.
3 multiple choice options
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:
B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure?
D. Syphilis
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill certain germs?
B. Immunity
3 multiple choice options
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by:
A. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.
3 multiple choice options
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:
C. assault.
3 multiple choice options
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:
B. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.
3 multiple choice options
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:
B. another EMT.
3 multiple choice options
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
B. clearly state the patient's medical problem.
3 multiple choice options
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
A. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.
3 multiple choice options
In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
A. inadequate patient care was administered.
3 multiple choice options
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.
3 multiple choice options
Putrefaction is defined as:
D. decomposition of the body's tissues.
3 multiple choice options
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
C. medical director.
3 multiple choice options
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
D. standard of care.
3 multiple choice options
Two EMT's witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV). The EMT's ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMT's is considered
C. legal but unethical
3 multiple choice options
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel?
C. Protecting patient privacy.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following general statements regrading consent is correct?
C. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?
D. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?
C. A conscious and alert woman with serve abdominal pain.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?
D. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
D. Attempted suicide.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following statements regrading Good Samaritan laws is correct?
A. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
D. Implied.
3 multiple choice options
You arrive at the of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?
A. Dependent lividity.
3 multiple choice options
A________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits then on a second frequency.
D. repeater.
3 multiple choice options
A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:
A. an informed refusal.
3 multiple choice options
All information recorded on the PCR must be:
C. considered confidential.
3 multiple choice options
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:
C. base station.
3 multiple choice options
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:
A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.
3 multiple choice options
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:
B. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.
3 multiple choice options
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:
B. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.
3 multiple choice options
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.
3 multiple choice options
Ethnocentrism is defined as:
D. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
3 multiple choice options
In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?
A. Calm and confident.
3 multiple choice options
The patient care report (PCR) ensures:
D. continuity of care.
3 multiple choice options
Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication?
B. Simplex.
3 multiple choice options
When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should:
D. determine the degree of the patient's impairment.
3 multiple choice options
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by:
A. not disclosing his or her name.
3 multiple choice options
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:
C. brief and easily understood.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities?
C. Cardiac arrest.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following statements regrading communication with a child is correct?
D. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.
3 multiple choice options
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies?
A. Scanner.
3 multiple choice options
You are caring for a 52-year old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate?
D. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow."
3 multiple choice options
You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.
A. slander.
3 multiple choice options
After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should:
D. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.
3 multiple choice options
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:
D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
3 multiple choice options
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
B. decontaminate.
3 multiple choice options
The__________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
B. sacrum.
3 multiple choice options
The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
D. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
3 multiple choice options
The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:
B. with a deformed humerus.
3 multiple choice options
The first rule of safe lifting is to:
A. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
3 multiple choice options
The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the:
D. basket stretcher.
3 multiple choice options
The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
D. injury to you or your patient.
3 multiple choice options
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
C. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
3 multiple choice options
When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:
D. shoulder girdle.
3 multiple choice options
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
C. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
3 multiple choice options
When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:
C. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.
3 multiple choice options
When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:
C. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.
3 multiple choice options
Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher?
A. Draw sheet method.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following situations would require an urgent move?
A. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock.
3 multiple choice options
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:
B.
Which of the following statements regrading patient weight distribution is correct?
D. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following statements regrading the scoop stretcher is not correct?
D. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column.
3 multiple choice options
You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than_________ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.
B. four
3 multiple choice options