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What are the external structures of the female reproductive system?
Mons veneris, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, perineum, hymen, urethral opening.
What is the function of the ovaries?
To develop and expel ova.
What is the role of the fallopian tubes?
To conduct the released ovum from the ovary to the uterus.
What are the three sections of the uterus?
Fundus, body, and cervix.
What is the myometrium?
The involuntary muscle layer of the uterus that supports pregnancy and expels the fetus during labor.
What is the endometrium?
The highly vascular lining of the uterus that provides for implantation of the fertilized ovum.
What is the function of the vagina?
It serves as the birth canal and is a distensible passage between the bladder and rectum.
What are the four types of pelvic shapes?
Gynecoid, android, platypelloid, and anthropoid.
What is amenorrhea?
The absence of menstrual flow when normally expected.
What is oligomenorrhea?
Scanty menstrual flow.
What is menorrhagia?
Excessive menstrual flow.
What is dysmenorrhea?
Painful menstruation.
At what average age does menopause occur?
Around 50 years old.
What are common symptoms associated with menopause?
Hot flashes, night sweats, emotional disturbances, and atrophy of genitals.
What is the purpose of estrogen replacement therapy (ERT)?
To manage symptoms associated with menopause.
What is the significance of breast self-examination (BSE)?
To develop breast self-awareness and detect unusual growths.
When should a breast self-examination be performed?
One week after the onset of each menstrual period or on a routine monthly schedule.
What should be assessed during a pelvic examination?
Client's understanding of anatomy, importance of exams, and any necessary cultures or Pap smears.
What is the role of the pituitary gland in the menstrual cycle?
It regulates the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
What occurs during the menstrual phase of the menstrual cycle?
Degeneration and discharge of most of the endometrium if conception does not occur.
What happens during the proliferative phase?
The graafian follicle develops in the ovary, and estrogen thickens the endometrium.
What is the secretory/luteal phase?
The phase where the corpus luteum secretes progesterone to prepare the uterine lining for implantation.
What is the ischemic phase?
Occurs if fertilization does not happen, leading to the degeneration of the corpus luteum and the start of menstrual flow.
What is the purpose of Kegel exercises?
To strengthen pelvic muscle support.
What are common characteristics of pre-eclampsia?
High blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys.
What is the Apgar score?
A quick test performed on a newborn to assess their physical condition and determine any immediate need for extra medical or emergency care.
What are the common analgesics and anesthetics used during labor?
Medications such as epidurals, nitrous oxide, and systemic analgesics.
What is the fourth stage of labor?
The recovery period after delivery, where the mother's body begins to stabilize.
What are congenital malformations of the urinary tract?
Birth defects that affect the normal structure and function of the urinary system.
What are the primary functions of the testes?
Site of testosterone and sperm production; sperm produced continuously from puberty.
What is the role of the seminiferous tubules?
They are the site of sperm production.
What is the function of the vas deferens?
Sperm storage and transport.
What do interstitial cells secrete?
Testosterone.
What is the urethra's role in male reproduction?
It serves as a passage for ejaculate as well as urine.
What is the function of the prostate gland?
It is an accessory gland of male reproduction that enhances the transmission of sperm.
What is the primary action of oral contraceptives?
They inhibit the release of FSH, resulting in anovulatory menstrual cycles.
What are common adverse effects of oral contraceptives?
Nausea and vomiting, usually occurring in the first 3 months; increased susceptibility to vaginal infections.
What are contraindications for using oral contraceptives?
Hypertension, thromboembolic disease, history of circulatory disease, varicosities, or diabetes mellitus.
What should patients be taught about missed oral contraceptive pills?
One missed pill should be taken as soon as remembered; more than one missed pill requires another method of birth control for the rest of the cycle.
What is the effectiveness of hormone injections like medroxyprogesterone?
99.7% effective in preventing ovulation for 12 weeks.
What should be avoided after receiving a hormone injection?
The injection site should not be massaged as it can decrease effectiveness.
What is the action of an intrauterine device (IUD)?
It causes degeneration of the fertilized egg or renders the uterine wall impervious to implantation.
What are common adverse effects of an IUD?
Cramping or excessive menstrual flow for 2-3 months; can cause infection.
What is the primary action of condoms?
They prevent ejaculate and sperm from entering the vagina and help prevent sexually transmitted diseases.
What is the primary function of a diaphragm?
It prevents sperm from entering the cervix and must be fitted by a healthcare provider.
What is the effectiveness of vaginal spermicides?
They interfere with the viability of sperm and prevent their entry into the cervix.
What does natural family planning involve?
Periodic abstinence from intercourse during the fertile period based on the regularity of ovulation.
What is coitus interruptus?
The man withdraws his penis before ejaculation to avoid depositing sperm into the vagina.
What is a vasectomy?
A procedure that terminates the passage of sperm through the vas deferens, usually permanent and 100% effective.
What is tubal ligation?
A surgical procedure where the fallopian tubes are tied and/or cauterized to prevent pregnancy.
What is the purpose of testicular self-examination?
To assess for changes in color, shape, lumps, or swelling of the testes.
What is culdoscopy?
A procedure where a lighted tube is inserted through the vagina to examine ovaries, fallopian tubes, and uterus.
What is colposcopy?
A procedure that uses a colposcope to magnify and observe tissues in the vagina for abnormalities.
What should a patient do post-culdoscopy?
Assess vital signs, observe for vaginal bleeding, and avoid douching and intercourse for 2 weeks.
What position is recommended during culdoscopy?
Knee-chest position during the procedure.
What is a colposcopy?
A procedure where a colposcope is inserted into the vagina to observe tissues for color, shape, vasculature, and lesions.
What is the purpose of laparoscopy?
To visualize structures in the pelvic cavity using a lighted laparoscope inserted through an incision beneath the umbilicus.
What is the role of carbon dioxide in laparoscopy?
It may be introduced to distend the abdomen and enhance visualization.
What is the typical postoperative care after laparoscopy?
Routine postoperative care is provided; the client may be out of bed and have a regular diet as tolerated.
What are smears used for in gynecological diagnostics?
To identify infectious processes, the presence of abnormal cells, and hormonal changes.
What types of infections can cultures diagnose?
Cultures can diagnose syphilis, gonorrhea, genital herpes, chlamydia, or mastitis.
What is the purpose of a biopsy?
To confirm or locate a malignant lesion by taking samples of tissue.
What is a punch biopsy?
A procedure done in an office to detect cancer of the cervix without anesthesia.
What is a cone biopsy?
A biopsy that requires anesthesia in an operating room to detect cervical cancer.
What is the recommended position during a culdoscopy?
The client should be in a knee-chest position.
What is the purpose of a Papanicolaou (Pap) test?
To perform a microscopic examination of cervical cells.
What should be avoided before a Pap test?
Douching and intercourse should be avoided for 24 hours before the test.
What is the significance of mammography?
It is used to detect tumors of the breast before clinical symptoms appear.
What does thermography detect?
Changes in circulation in breast tissue, indicating potential tumor processes.
What characterizes simple vaginitis?
It is characterized by yellow discharge, itching, burning, and edema.
What is nonspecific vaginitis presumed to be caused by?
Bacterial infection, often identified by gray-white discharge with a foul odor.
What is the treatment for Candida albicans infection?
Treated with topical clotrimazole, nystatin, or oral fluconazole.
What are the symptoms of Trichomonas vaginalis infection?
Profuse green/yellow/white malodorous discharge and 'strawberry' cervix.
What is atrophic vaginitis?
A condition occurring after menopause characterized by pale, thin, dry mucosa.
What are the symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)?
High fever, vomiting, diarrhea, drop in blood pressure, and a sunburn-like rash.
What is infertility?
Inability to conceive after a year of unprotected intercourse.
What are common alternatives for treating infertility?
Artificial insemination, in vitro fertilization, and adoption.
What are the symptoms of simple vaginitis?
Yellow discharge, itching, and burning.
What is atrophic vaginitis and how is it treated?
Occurs after menopause; treated with topical estrogen cream and water-soluble vaginal lubricants.
What are the symptoms of Candida albicans infection?
Itching, inflamed vagina, and odorless, cheesy white discharge.
What is toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?
A condition characterized by sudden-onset fever, vomiting, diarrhea, and a drop in blood pressure.
How is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) managed?
Managed with antibiotics, fluid and electrolyte replacement, and warm douches.
What are the symptoms of mastitis?
Reddened, inflamed breast, fever, fatigue, and pain.
What are fibrocystic changes in breast tissue?
Development of multiple cysts, often tender and enlarged during menstrual periods.
What is the significance of a Pap smear?
Used to detect cancer of the cervix, especially in women with abnormal bleeding.
What are the symptoms of breast cancer?
Small, fixed, painless lump, changes in skin texture, and possible discharge from the nipple.
What are uterine fibroids (myomas)?
Benign tumors of the myometrium that can cause menorrhagia and may require surgery.
What is endometriosis?
A condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, causing pain and infertility.
What are the symptoms of uterine cancer?
Watery discharge, irregular menstrual bleeding, and menorrhagia.
What is a hysterectomy?
Surgical removal of the uterus; can be subtotal or total.
What is ovarian cancer and its risk factors?
Cancer of the ovaries; risk factors include family history and nulliparity.
What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Enlargement of the prostate gland causing urinary retention and frequency, common in men over 50.
What are the symptoms of prostatitis?
Fever, chills, dysuria, and purulent penile discharge.
What is phimosis?
Inability to retract the foreskin in uncircumcised males, often associated with inflammation.
What is an inguinal hernia?
Protrusion of a bowel loop through the inguinal ring, usually soft and painless.
What is a varicocele?
Abnormal dilation of veins along the spermatic cord, often causing male infertility.
What is testicular cancer?
Malignancy characterized by a painless testicular mass, often detected through self-examination.
What is the treatment for ovarian cysts?
May include monitoring, biopsy, or surgical removal to prevent necrosis.
What is the role of Kegel exercises?
To strengthen pelvic floor muscles and improve pelvic support.
What is the purpose of a mammography screening?
To detect breast cancer early through imaging.