Animal Health Exam 3

What is the literal Greek meaning of the word “pathology”?

The study of suffering

Which type of pathology is involved in examining tissues from necropsy or biopsy?

Anatomic Pathology

What term describes the use of smears, blood, and fluid analysis in pathology?

Clinical Pathology

Which branch of pathology is involved in legal investigations such as gunshot wounds?

Forensic Pathology

A lung condition that involves masses of bacteria or blood clots traveling through the bloodstream and lodging in the pulmonary artery, causing inflammation and tissue death due to infarction?

Embolic pneumonia

Which stain is used to highlight mast cells in histology?

Toluidine blue

Which type of lung lesion is associated with viral or toxic causes?

Interstitial pneumonia

What is the purpose of comparing normal vs. altered tissue in pathology?

To detect lesions and reach a diagnosis

Which of the following would most likely be submitted to the lab as part of clinical pathology?

Thoracic effusion fluid

A veterinarian sends a nasal smear from a coughing horse. What kind of pathology is this?

Clinical

What differentiates toxicological pathology from routine anatomic pathology?

It is focused on the research of toxins or chemicals

What kind of pneumonia results from food or liquids entering the lungs?

Aspiration pneumonia

Why is PCR used in pathology?

To detect specific DNA or RNA of pathogens

Which of the following would be considered a “lesion”?

An area of necrotic tissue in the liver

Why is histopathology important in veterinary diagnostics?

It helps identify the cellular changes underlying disease

Which pneumonia type would be most consistent with fungal or mycobacterial infections?

Granulomatous pneumonia

A cat presents with respiratory distress. Fluid is aspirated from the thorax, and a smear shows abundant neutrophils and bacteria. What is the preliminary diagnosis?

Suppurative exudate due to bacterial infection

Which bacteria cause blackleg in cattle and sheep?

Clostridium chauvoei

Which disease in small ruminants is caused by Clostridium perfringens types C and D?

Enterotoxemia ("Overeating disease")

What is the normal rectal temperature range for cattle?

100.5–102.5°F

Which zoonotic disease is mainly transmitted through birthing fluids?

Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)

Which of the following is primarily responsible for causing scours in young calves at 1–2 weeks of age?

Rotavirus

Which of the following is a zoonotic pathogen that can be transmitted through unpasteurized milk?

Listeria

What should be administered during band castration of goats if the dam was not vaccinated?

Tetanus antitoxin

Which mineral deficiency in ruminants can cause white muscle disease?

Selenium

Which parasite is most commonly associated with severe anemia in sheep and goats?

Haemonchus contortus

Why are goats more prone to urinary calculi when fed high-concentrate diets?

Excess phosphorus contributes to the formation of struvite crystals

How does flight zone behavior benefit cattle handling?

Reduce stress and promotes safety

Why are goats considered browsers while sheep are grazers?

Goats prefer shrubs and trees; sheep prefer grasses

Why should producers isolate new goats or sheep for 30 days before mixing them with the herd?

To prevent disease introduction

Which vaccine is considered core for small ruminant flocks?

CD-T

What is the typical clinical sign of urinary calculi in male goats?

Straining and urine dribbling

You are called to a farm with sudden deaths in 6-month-old calves. Necropsy reveals muscle necrosis with gas bubbles. What is your immediate action plan?

Vaccinate the herd with a 7-way Clostridial vaccine

A goat breeder wants to minimize the risk of urinary stones. What should you advise regarding diet?

High roughage-based diets and limit concentrates

Which breed is considered a prolific egg layer but nervous in temperament?

Non-commercial Leghorn

What is the main breed used for commercial poultry meat production?

Rock Cornish Cross

What is the recommended brooding temperature for chicks during the first week?

95°F

What is the primary function of bedding in poultry housing?

Absorb moisture and prevent foot/blister injuries

Which is an example of a dual-purpose poultry breed?

Rhode Island Red

What is the ideal feeder placement to reduce feed waste?

Hanging at shoulder height

Which protozoal parasite causes cecal damage and diarrhea in young birds?

Coccidia (Eimeria sp.)

What is the intermediate host for tapeworms in poultry?

Snails, beetles, or ants

Which internal parasite appears thread-like and may use earthworms as hosts?

Capillaria (Crop worms)

Which virus causes both skin lesions and respiratory distress in poultry?

Fowl Pox

What clinical sign is associated with Marek’s disease in chickens?

Paralysis and gray eye

Which disease is caused by a retrovirus and leads to visceral tumors in hens?

Lymphoid Leukosis

Which mite is known to burrow under the skin scales of the legs and feet?

Scaly leg mite

Which is a common sign of poultry lice infestation?

Drop in egg production and lice on skin

Why is Baytril prohibited in poultry in the U.S.?

Illegal due to food safety regulations

Foreign Animal Diseases (FADs) are defined as:

Diseases not currently found in the U.S. but of high concern if introduced

Which federal agency coordinates national responses to foreign animal diseases?

USDA–APHIS (Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service)

Which of the following statements about FADs is true?

They threaten food supply, economy, and international trade.

Which FAD causes vesicles (blisters) on the tongue, teats, and feet of cloven-hoofed animals?

Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)

The economic impact of a major FAD outbreak in the U.S. would likely include:

Trade restrictions, culling losses, and job impacts in animal industries

Which of the following animals can be affected by FMD?

Cattle, pigs, sheep, goats, and deer

African Swine Fever (ASF) is caused by:

A virus with no available vaccine or treatment

Why is early detection of FADs critical?

To prevent spread and minimize economic losses

Who must report suspected FAD cases in the U.S.?

Veterinarians, producers, and anyone observing suspicious symptoms

Which of the following is not an example of a FAD?

Brucellosis in cattle (already endemic control program)

Which statement best describes “one-health” relevance of FADs?

They affect animal, human, and environmental health through shared exposure

An outbreak of a FAD in one country can affect producers worldwide because:

International trade restrictions and animal movement bans

How can FADs enter the U.S.?

Through international travel, contaminated feed, or imported animals/products

Why are backyard poultry flocks a concern in FAD control?

They often lack strict biosecurity and interact with wild birds

The person authorized to officially investigate and report a suspected FAD is a:

Foreign Animal Disease Diagnostician (FADD)

High-Path Avian Influenza (HPAI) differs from Low-Path AI because:

HPAI can kill entire flocks rapidly and be found in meat and eggs

Which species group serves as the natural reservoir for Avian Influenza viruses?

Waterfowl and shorebirds

How can HPAI virus most commonly be spread between farms?

Contaminated equipment, people, or vehicles (fomites)

The control area established around an infected poultry premise is typically:

10 km (6.2 miles)

What is the first step when unusual mortality is observed on a farm?

Report to the State Veterinarian or Clemson Livestock Poultry Health Office

Why is pasteurization important during dairy-associated AI outbreaks?

It kills the Avian Influenza virus in milk

Which practice best helps producers become a Monitored Premises during an HPAI control zone?

Maintaining negative AI tests and documented enhanced biosecurity

Depopulation (stamping out) during outbreaks is done to:

Rapidly eliminate the virus source and prevent further spread

Which carcass disposal method is generally preferred for disease control?

On-site composting or burial approved by environmental authorities

Why is downtime required after disinfection before repopulating barns?

To allow time for virus die-off and environmental safety verification

Secure Poultry Supply Plans” are designed to:

Allow safe movement of poultry and eggs from negative farms during an outbreak

Which of the following biosecurity practices is most effective on farms?

Restricting entry of visitors and disinfecting vehicles and boots

International travelers returning from livestock areas overseas should:

Avoid animal contact for at least 5 days and disinfect clothing/equipment

Rodents, insects, and wild birds are controlled primarily to:

Prevent the mechanical spread of diseases like Salmonella and Influenza

Farm workers attending livestock shows or training should:

Avoid sharing equipment and monitor their animals after returning

True or False: Foreign Animal Diseases (FADs) are under federal and state regulatory control because they threaten national food security and trade.

True — FADs like FMD or ASF are federally reportable diseases that can halt commerce.

True or False: The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA–APHIS) is the primary federal agency responsible for investigating and responding to FADs.

True — specifically through the Veterinary Services (VS) branch of APHIS.

True or False: Foreign Animal Disease Diagnosticians (FADDs) are state veterinarians who volunteer to help during outbreaks.

False — FADDs are federally trained and accredited veterinarians certified by USDA–APHIS to officially investigate suspected cases.

True or False: All suspected FAD cases must be reported within 48 hours of observation.

False — they must be reported immediately to the State Veterinarian or USDA–APHIS (no waiting period).

True or False: Only veterinarians are legally required to report a suspected FAD in the U.S.

False — any individual (producer, lab, vet tech, animal owner) who suspects a regulated disease must report it.

True or False: Each U.S. state has an Official State Veterinarian’s Office that partners with USDA–APHIS during outbreaks.

True — state and federal coordination ensures local enforcement of quarantines and movement control.

True or False: “Regulatory medicine” in animal health refers to private practice care and elective procedures.

False — it refers to governmental programs enforcing disease control laws and protecting public resources.

True or False: If Foot and Mouth Disease is confirmed in South Carolina, the State Veterinarian would have no authority to stop livestock movement.

False — movement bans, quarantines, and biosecurity orders are legally enforced by the State Veterinarian’s office.

True or False: A “National Animal Health Emergency” is managed jointly by USDA–APHIS and the Department of Homeland Security.

True — both agencies collaborate under federal emergency management frameworks.

True or False: The U.S. has a pre-approved FAD Response Plan that guides containment, depopulation, and disinfection strategies.

True — the USDA’s Foreign Animal Disease Preparedness and Response Plan (FAD PReP) outlines these steps.

True or False: “Depopulation” under USDA guidelines refers to voluntary reduction of flock size for better welfare.

False — it means rapid humane destruction of infected and exposed animals to halt disease spread.

True or False: Producers who comply with USDA’s Secure Food Supply Plans may be allowed controlled product movement during an outbreak.

True — compliance allows “Monitored Premises” to transport eggs, milk, or animals under permit.

True or False: The “10 km Control Zone” established around infected premises is a recommendation but not legally binding.

False — it is a mandatory quarantine area under state and federal emergency regulations.

True or False: Federal and state personnel use standard protective gear (PPE) during outbreak investigations to prevent zoonotic and farm-to-farm spread.

True — PPE is required under USDA and CDC occupational safety protocols.

True or False: If an outbreak occurs, the first laboratory to test samples is the National Veterinary Services Laboratories (NVSL) in Iowa.

False — initial testing is done at an approved National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN) state lab, with NVSL confirming results.

True or False: The U.S. Animal Health Protection Act gives federal authorities power to quarantine, seize, or destroy infected livestock if necessary.

True — this act (2002) authorizes USDA enforcement of disease control measures.

True or False: International travelers returning from livestock regions must avoid U.S. animal contact for at least five days.

True — this is an APHIS-recommended biosecurity measure to prevent FAD introduction.

True or False: Pasteurization of milk is a regulatory safeguard that destroys Avian Influenza virus during dairy-related outbreaks.

True — USDA and FDA confirm that pasteurization effectively inactivates HPAI virus in milk.

True or False: Carcass disposal during federally regulated disease outbreaks must be pre-approved by environmental and state health authorities.

True — disposal methods (e.g., burial, composting) require permits from DHEC/DES and USDA oversight.

True or False: Failure to follow quarantine orders during an official FAD outbreak may result in legal penalties.

True — violating state or federal livestock movement restrictions is a prosecutable offense.

What percentage of swine diseases in production facilities are considered management-related?

75%