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Why is performance appraisal of alternative investments more difficult than traditional assets?
Illiquidity
Long investment horizons
Staggered capital commitments
Complex fee structures
Less efficient markets
Returns are often non-normal, so traditional risk/return measures are less reliable
What makes performance comparison between alternative and traditional assets difficult?
Differences in cash flow timing
leverage use
valuation methods
fee/tax structures.
What are the three phases of the alternative investment life cycle?
1. Capital commitment
Capital called gradually
Fees and setup costs dominate
Returns usually negative
2. Capital deployment
Funds invested into assets/projects
High expenses (development, restructuring, operations)
Cash outflows > inflows
3. Capital distribution
Exits occur (IPO, sale, liquidation)
Strong positive returns realised
Fund performance accelerates then stabilises
What is the J-curve effect?
Initial negative returns followed by rising returns as investments mature and exit.
Why is IRR important in alternative investments, how does it work, what does it measure?
Primary metric for private equity and real assets
Captures:
Timing of capital calls
Timing of distributions
Reflects manager skill in capital allocation + timing decisions
limitations of IRR
Assumes reinvestment rate
Sensitive to cash flow timing assumptions
What is MOIC?
Multiple of Invested Capital = invested capitalrealised gains + unrealised gains
Measures total return multiple (e.g., 2×, 3×)
advantages and limitations of MOIC
Advantages:
Simple and intuitive
Limitation:
Ignores time (2× in 2 years ≠ 2× in 15 years)
It ignores the timing of cash flows.
leveraged return formula
rL = Leveraged portfolio return/Cash position =
rL=r+Vc(r–rb)Vb
Vc = cash investment
r = periodic rate of return
rb = periodic borrowing rate to increase the size of its investment by borrowed funds of
Vb = borrowed funds ,
rL = leveraged rate of return
What is fair value in alternative investments?
Estimated market-based exit price in an orderly transaction.
What are the three levels of fair value inputs?
Level 1: Market prices
Level 2: Observable inputs
Level 3: Unobservable/model-based inputs
Which assets typically use Level 3 valuation?
Private equity, real estate, and other illiquid investments.
Why is Level 3 valuation problematic?
Model-based valuation (“mark-to-model”): bias and liquidity misrepresentation
Limited market data
Valuations may:
Smooth volatility
Overstate stability
Diverge from liquidation value
Requires strong governance and independent validation
Why are alternative investment fee structures more complex?
performance-based incentives
varying timing of investment → different fee burdens for similar performance.
Why do alternative investments use performance fees?
align manager compensation with investment performance and investor outcomes.
Why are hedge fund strategies more expensive to run?
Complex strategies
Leverage
Performance-based compensation
Lockups and redemption restrictions
What is a redemption fee?
Fee charged when investors withdraw capital
Purpose:
Discourage withdrawals
Offset transaction costs caused by redemptions
What is a lockup period and why are they used?
Minimum holding period before investors may redeem or withdraw funds
To provide managers enough time to execute long-term strategies.
What is a gate provision and why are they used?
A restriction limiting investor redemptions during periods of stress or illiquidity
To prevent forced asset sales and protect remaining investors.
what are fees Based on Liquidity & Investment Size
Longer lockups → lower fees
Larger investors often negotiate:
Lower management fees
Lower incentive fees
What are founders shares?
Incentives for early investors in new funds
Offer reduced fees
What are “either/or” fee structures?
Manager chooses:
Lower fixed management fee
OR higher performance fee
GP Compensation Formula
RGP=(P1⋅rm)+max[0,(P1−P0)⋅p]
rm = fixed GP management fees as a percentage of assets under management (AUM)
P0 = beginning-of-period assets
P1 = end-of-period assets
p = GP performance fee as a percentage of total return
What is the investor return formula after fees?
ri=P0P1−P0−RGP
What is the purpose of a high-water mark?
Prevents managers from charging performance fees twice on the same gains.
What is survivorship bias in hedge fund indexes and why is it common?
failed funds are excluded, overstating average returns
Many poorly performing funds close and disappear from databases.
What is backfill bias and effect?
Selectively adding successful historical fund returns to databases after good performance
artificially inflates reported hedge fund performance.