Miscellaneous Conditions, Tests, and Standards Davies Review

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Last updated 12:11 AM on 4/12/26
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39 Terms

1
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for saphenous vein mapping, which transducer would be the best choice?

A. 3 MHz curved array

B. 4-6 MHz curved array

C. 5 MHz linear array

D. 7-10 MHz linear array

D.

2
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you are mapping the saphenous vein in a patient scheduled for coronary artery bypass surgery. you have discovered that the saphenous veins are inadequate for harvesting. which of the following veins would be best to evaluate as an alternate graft?

A. deep femoral vein

B. cephalic vein

C. popliteal vein

D. axillary vein

B.

3
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you have been asking to perform a vein mapping of the saphenous vein. which of the following techniques would be most helpful?

A. decrease room temperature so the small saphenous vein will become dilated

B. use a high-frequency transducer and light probe pressure to track the saphenous vein

C. place the patient in an upright position to improve visualization of the saphenous vein

D. place the patient in a prone position to improve access to the saphenous vein

B.

4
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a patient presents with a pseudoaneurysm following arterial puncture. for ultrasound-guided compression of the pseudoaneurysm, how long would each compression last before you check for cessation of flow into the pseudoaneurysm?

A. 1 minute

B. 30 minutes

C. 10 minutes

D. 45 minutes

C.

5
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arteriovenous fistula is a complication that most commonly occurs with:

A. angioplasty

B. reversed vein bypass grafts

C. atherectomy

D. in situ grafts

D.

6
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the type of aneurysm related to arterial trauma that results in blood escaping through a defect in the vessel wall and extravasating into the surrounding tissue is a:

A. pseudoaneurysm

B. fusiform aneurysm

C. saccular aneurysm

D. dissecting aneurysm

A.

7
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a patient presents with swelling around the puncture site of arteriography. duplex sonography reveals a high-velocity tract from the artery leading to a large hematoma. what is the term for this pathology?

A. dissection

B. pseudoaneurysm

C. arteriovenous fistula

D. subintimal hematoma

B.

8
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which of the following describes typical venous Doppler waveform obtained proximal to an arteriovenous fistula?

A. increased velocity and pulsatility

B. prominent respiratory phasicity

C. unchanged from normal

D. continuous low velocity

A.

9
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what characteristics would be demonstrated by a typical arterial Doppler waveform obtained proximal to an arteriovenous fistula?

A. triphasic

B. high resistance with no diastolic flow

C. low resistance with increased flow

D. bidirectional with increased velocities during systole and reverse flow in diastole

C.

10
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which statement regarding an arteriovenous fistula is NOT true?

A. a fistula located close to the heart increases the potential for cardiac failure

B. arterial flow proximal to the fistula is markedly increased

C. blood pressure in the distal artery is always increased

D. a thrill may be felt over the fistula site

C.

11
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which of the following describes the classic flow pattern in the neck of a traumatic pseudoanuerysm?

A. high-velocity antegrade flow in systole with retrograde flow in diastole

B. high resistance with absence of flow in diastole

C. low resistance with high-velocity flow during systole

D. trickle flow

A.

12
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your patient has undergone cardiac catheterization. ultrasonographic findings in the lower extremity include low-resistance, high-velocity flow in the common femoral artery and pulsatile flow in the common femoral vein. a prominent bruit is present. these findings are most closely associated with:

A. pseudoaneurysm

B. arterial dissection

C. traumatic arteriovenous fistula

D. arterial and venous compression due to hematoma

C.

13
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a Brescia-cimino fistula is a type of:

A. traumatic fistula

B. dialysis access anastomosis

C. surgical correction for thoracic outlet syndrome

D. congenital fistula

B.

14
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which is a complication of dialysis access grafts?

A. arterial steal

B. aneurysm

C. venous stenosis

D. all of the above

D.

15
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in liver transplants, what is the location of the arterial anastomosis of the native common hepatic artery to the donor hepatic artery?

A. in the posterior aspect of the right lobe of the liver

B. in the medial segment of the left lobe of the liver

C. at the porta hepatis where the hepatic artery enters the liver

D. several centimeters proximal to the hepatic hilum

D.

16
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the Doppler frequency most likely to be used to evaluate the penile artery is:

A. 2 MHz

B. 4 MHz

C. 20 MHz

D. 7 MHz

D.

17
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which of the following represents a normal penile/brachial index (PBI)?

A. 0.75 or greater

B. 0.65-0.74

C. less than 0.65

D. all are normal

A.

18
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what is an advantage of using the radial artery instead of the great or small saphenous vein for coronary artery bypass grafts?

A. vessel caliber similar to that of coronary arteries

B. thicker vessel wall

C. longer patency rates

D. all of the above

D.

19
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the internal thoracic artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?

A. innominate

B. vertebral

C. subclavian

D. axillary

C.

20
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which of the following is a common feature of temporal arteritis?

A. dissection

B. aneurysm

C. intimal thickening

D. tortuosity

E. ectasia

C.

21
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which of the following describes the adson maneuver used in diagnosis of thoracic outlet syndrome?

A. the patient hyperabducts the arm in conjunction with rapid opening and closing of the hand

B. the patient sits straight and crosses the arms in front during inspiration

C. the patient assumes military posture with the shoulders braced down

D. the patient's arm is at a 90 degree angle to the torso with the head turned toward the affected side and then away from the affected side during deep inspiration

D.

22
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symptoms associated with thoracic outlet syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. increased blood pressure on the affected arm

B. aching of the shoulder and forearm

C. numbness or tingling of the arm

D. increased discomfort with upward arm positions

A.

23
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which of the following would NOT be associated with arterial trauma?

A. fibromuscular dysplasia

B. hematoma

C. pseudoaneurysm

D. dissection

A.

24
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you are performing a Doppler exam on a 32-year-old female who was recently involved in a car accident. she received a blow to the left side of her body. she presents with a abdominal bruit, back pain, and hypertension. which of the following conditions is most likely?

A. takayasu's arteritis involving the abdominal aorta

B. fibromuscular dysplasia involving the splenic and common hepatic arteries

C. dissection involving the abdominal aorta and possibly the renal arteries

D. inflammatory aneurysm of the infrarenal abdominal aorta

C.

25
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you are performing an ultrasound exam on a patient with a gunshot wound involving the posterior tibial artery. what artifact is associated with metallic objects such as bullets?

A. enhancement

B. multipath

C. comet-tail

D. mirror-image

C.

26
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you are trying to determine whether to map the great saphenous vein for use as a lower extremity bypass graft. which of the following observations would render the vein suitable for this purpose?

A. vein measure 3.0 x 3.2 mm

B. diameter of the vessel is unchanged following application of a proximal tourniquet

C. vessel walls do no coapt

D. mural calcifications are present

A.

27
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PTFE, often used for dialysis grafts, has the following sonographic appearance:

A. fuzzy

B. double-walled

C. essentially the same as veins

D. very bright, with acoustic shadowing

B.

28
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the Brescia-cimino fistula is a common configuration for dialysis access because of the:

A. large radius of the brachial veins

B. proximity of the basilic vein and ulnar artery

C. proximity of the brachial artery and basilic vein

D. proximity of the cephalic vein and radial artery

D.

29
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an abnormal flow rate for a radial artery/cephalic vein dialysis fistula is:

A. less than 200 ml/min

B. 400 to 900 ml/min

C. 1000 to 1500 ml/min

D. greater than 1500 ml/min

A.

30
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the digital/brachial systolic pressure ratio is an extremity with a dialysis fistula:

A. is greater than 1.00

B. is less than 0.80

C. is less than 0.50

D. should not be measured

D.

31
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in duplex assessment of dialysis fistulas (synthetic or native), common abnormalities include all EXCEPT:

A. stenosis at the venous anastomosis

B. high flow rates exceeding 300 ml/min

C. false aneurysm caused by needle puncture

D. aneurysm of the graft

B.

32
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complications associated with hemodialysis access grafts include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. distal limb ischemia

B. decreased distal venous pressure

C. pseudoaneurysm

D. congestive heart failure

B.

33
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the common format for archiving and outputting medical images is:

A. PACS

B. CDROM

C. DICOM

D. MEDCOM

C.

34
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what is PACS?

A. a common name for lower-frequency probes

B. a control for gain at different depths

C. the stage of image processing involving compression

D. a digital storage and retrieval system

D.

35
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which of these actions would be most in keeping with the ALARA principle during vascular interrogation?

A. complete the diagnostic scan using the lowest output power that is reasonably achievable

B. prolong the exam to allow the patient to communicate symptoms he/she is feeling during the exam

C. maximize the acoustic output to shorten the duration of the exam

D. allow multiple students to scan a patient for training purposes

A.

36
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all of the following should be discussed with patients undergoing an ultrasound-guided intraoperative procedure examination EXCEPT:

A. probable diagnoses

B. what to wear to the procedure

C. how to position themselves during the procedure

D. aftercare measures

A.

37
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what should patients understand prior to undergoing a vascular ultrasound examination?

A. ultrasound is uncomfortable but well tolerated

B. the gel applied to the patient's skin during the procedure will help the patient relax

C. ultrasound does not expose the patient to ionizing radiation

D. the patient should be sure to void urine prior to the procedure

C.

38
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which of the following must you do to comply with HIPPA requirements?

A. avoid conversations with patients

B. store patient information so it is accessible to all physicians and staff

C. store files in a locked vault or safe after the examination

D. remove notations that identify a patient in an image used for publication

D.

39
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what is the significance of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) in the noninvasive testing environment?

A. it provides guidance for testing protocols

B. it is concerned primarily with patient safety

C. it oversees regulations ensuring a safe environment for workers

D. it regulates compliance with standards related to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)

C.