rad IIB (post midterm material)

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Last updated 3:21 AM on 6/1/26
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334 Terms

1
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what are the types of intracapsular femoral fractures

subcapital

midcervical

basocervical

2
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what are the types of extracapsular femoral fractures

intertrochanteric

trochanteric

substrochanteric

3
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which types of femoral fracture is a red flag for drug induced fractures

subtrochanteric

4
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what do intracapsular fractures have a higher risk of

non union

avascular necrosis

5
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who is more at risk for proximal femoral fractures

geriatric patients

older females (post menopausal)

6
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what are predisposing pathologies for proximal femoral fractures

paget's disease

fibrous dysplasia

benign/malignant bone tumors

osteoporosis

osteomalacia

radiation induced osteonecrosis

7
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many elderly who fracture proximal femur ______

die within 6 months from secondary pulmonary and cardiac complications

8
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what imaging modalities are useful for proximal femur fractures

CT, MRI, isotopic bone

9
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which type of intracapsular hip fractures are uncommon

basocervical

midcervical

10
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what does a basocervical fracture suggest

malignancy --> METS, multiple myeloma

-the area is rich in marrow and usually has a lot of strength

11
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what is the most common proximal location for intracapsular fracture

subcapital

12
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what is the classification system for subcapital fractures

Garden

13
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according to Garden classification system, incidence of complications and severity of AVN ______ with each stage

increases

14
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what does an isolated avulsion fracture of the lesser trochanter suggest

underlying bone pathology

15
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what orientation is a intertrochanteric femur fracture usually

oblique

16
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what drug is usually associated with subtrochanteric fractures

bisphosphonate use (Fosamax)

17
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what other conditions can cause subtrochanteric fractures

paget's

mets

18
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mid diaphyseal fracture of femur is ______

uncommon

19
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most hip dislocations go _____

posterior

20
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what are most hip dislocations associated with

acetabulum fracture

21
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what is the MOI of posterior hip dislocation

hip in flexion and adduction of thigh followed by direct blow to knee

22
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what associated fracture is found in up to 90% of posterior hip dislocations

posterior lip of acetabulum fracture

23
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where does the femur lie in posterior hip dislocations

cephalad and lateral to acetabulum

24
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what are contraindications for posterior hip dislocations

adjusting in side posture on either side

25
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what is the MOI for anterior hip dislocation

hip in forced abduction and extension

getting hit from behind

26
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where does the femoral head lie in anterior hip dislocation

caudal and medial to acetabulum and near the obturator foramen

27
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what are hip dislocaiton complications

nerve injury

sciatic nerve paralysis from posterior

myositis ossificans and AVN of femoral head

degenerative arthritis

28
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aka for SCFE

adolescent coxa vara

epiphyseal coxa vara

epiphysiolisthesis

SUFE

29
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what salter harris classification is SCFE

type 1

30
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what are the findings of SCFE

upward displacement, external rotation, and adduction of neck on head

-varus deformity, adduction, and external rotation of femur

31
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when does SCFE occur

during rapid growth

32
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what is the single most important factor for etiology of SCFE

elevated body weight

33
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what side is most common for SCFE

left hip

34
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what is hte most common disorder of adolescent hip

SCFE

35
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what age groups are affected by SCFE

10-15 years

36
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what age groups are affected by legg calve perthes

5-7 years

37
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what age groups are affected by congenital hip dysplasia

infants

38
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what is the classic presentation of SCFE

limp with hip pain referred to knee in an obese adolescent --> frohlich's body type

39
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what might be the initial presentation of SCFE

pain at thigh and/or knee

40
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what test is positive with severe slippage of SCFE

trendelenburg test

41
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what does bilateral severe slippage with SCFE cause

waddling gait

42
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what conditions can SCFE be associated with

renal osteodystrophy

hypothyroidism

rickets

radiotherapy

43
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what are the x-ray findings of SCFE

post medial slippage of epiphysis

widening of growth plate

reduced epiphyseal height

medial epiphyseal beaking

widened teardrop distance

abnormal Klein's line

medial femoral neck periosteal buttressing --> pistrol grip deformity

44
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what are complications of SCFE

permanent coxa vara deformity

femral neck broadening and shortening

AVN of femoral head

acute cartilage necrosis

osteoarthritis

45
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what does pistol grip deformity lead to

femoral acetabular impingement

46
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aka for tibial plateau fracture

bumper/fender fracture

47
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what side is involved in 80% of tibial plateau fractures

lateral plateau

48
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what is the MOI of tibial plataeu fracture

impact of femoral condyles into weaker tibial plateau

axial load

49
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who is most commonly affected by tibial plateau fractures

patients older than 50

osteoporotic

50
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what imaging view is necessary to visualize tibial plateau fracture

obliques

51
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T/F: 90% of fibular head fractures have something else associated with it

true

52
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what is an anterior tibial spine fracture

avulsion fracture at origin of ACL --> tibial eminence

53
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what is the MOI of anterior tibial spine fracture

hyperextension of knee with internal rotation of tibia

54
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who is most often affected by anterior tibial spine fracture

children falling of bike

55
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T/F: severity of ACL avulsion fractures increases from Type 1 to 4

true

56
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what age group is affected by trampoline fracture

children 2-10 years old

57
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what is the MOI of trampoline fracture

impaction between the descending child's leg and upward moving mat

58
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what is the location of trampoline fracture

proximal tibial metaphysis fracture

59
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who is most affected by tibial tuberosity avulsion fractures

adolescent boys who partake in athletic activities --> strong quads

60
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what can predispose someone to tibial tuberosity avulsion fracture

presence of osgood schlatters

61
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what is segond's fracture

avulsion fracture of bony insertion of TFL at margin of lateral tibial condyle

62
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what is MOI of segond's fracture

forced internal rotation of tibia with varus stress (skiing, basketball, baseball)

63
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what is associated with segond's fracture in 75-100% of cases

ACL tear --> need MRI

64
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what is often associated with proximal fibula fractures

PCL tear

65
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what causes FBI sign

intraarticular fracture leading to bone marrow extruding into joint fulid and creating a fat blood interface

66
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what view is the only view to see FBI sign

cross table lateral

67
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what is the most common fracture orientation for patella

transverse at midpoint of patella

68
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what are the differential diagnoses for patella fracture

bipartite and tripartite patella

69
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how do you differentiate between patellar fracture and bipartite/tripartite paetlla

-take x-ray of other knee because bipartite/tripartite patella is usually bilaterla

-bipartitie/tripartitie patella is usually in superolateral corner

70
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what is a sellate patellar fracture

comminuted

71
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what causes widening of the space between fragments with transverse patellar fracture

contraction of quads

72
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what is the most common direction for patellar dislocation

lateral

73
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what is sliver sign

flake fracture or osteochondral fracture

-associated with patellar dislocation as medial facet impacts the lateral femoral condyle

74
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what is the hallmark sign for recurring patellar dislocation

flake fracture

75
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what is a fracture through both tibia and fibula near midshaft (distal 1/3 of diaphysis)

boot top fracture

76
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what is the most common location for ankle fracture

lateral malleolus

77
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what view is needed to best see lateral malleolus fracture

medial oblique

78
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what are the two main ankle fracture classifications

dennis weber (fibular fracture compared to tibiotalar joint space)

lauge hansen (MOI)

79
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what is weber A fracture

transverse fracture through lateral malleolus

80
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what is weber B fracture

oblique lateral malleolus fracture

tib fib syndesmosis should be ok but can be widened

medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament disruption

81
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what is weber C fracture

widening of distal tibiofibular aritculat and torn syndesmosis

medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament disruption

-risk on non union

82
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what is thumb sign

swelling near lateral malleolus that points to a higher concern for fracture

83
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what is the medial clear space

space between the talus and medial malleolus

should be 4 mm

84
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what does a widened medial clear space indicate

damage to stabilizing ligaments

85
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what is the lateral clear space

tib fib distance

should be no more than 5 mm

86
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what does a widened lateral clear space indicate

separated syndesmosis between tib and fib

87
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what is the overlap between lateral tibia and fibula

should be at least 1 cm of overlap

88
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what does a decreased tib fib overlap indicate

syndesmosis widening

89
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what is the MOI Of medial malleolus fracture

hypersupination

90
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what is the MOI of lateral malleolus fracture

hyperpronation

outward or external rotation of foot

91
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what is a bimalleolar fracture

fracture of medial and lateral malleoli

-transverse on one side because of tensile forces and oblique or spiral on the opposite side

92
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what is a cotton fracture

posterior lip of tibia (third malleolus)

93
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what is cotton fracture associated with

tibiotalar dislocations

external rotation of foot

94
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what is a trimalleolar fracture

fracture of medial, lateral and posterior malleoli

95
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what view is used to visualize third malleolus fracture

lateral

96
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what is a proximal fibular shaft fracture with rupture of the distal tib-fib syndemosis and has pain at ankle

maisonneuve fracture

97
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what is MOI of maisonneuve fracture

forceful inversion and external rotation of the ankle

98
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what is a toddler's fracture

-undisplaced spiral fracture of tibia in children 9 months to 3 years

-fall or child gets foot caught between slats of crib

99
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what in the ankle is non union a likely complication

medial malleolus

100
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what is the most commonly fractured tarsal

calcaneus