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What are the three fungal genera primarily associated with mycotoxins in food safety?
Aspergillus, Fusarium, and Penicillium
Which fungal genus produces Aflatoxins?
Aspergillus
Name two Aspergillus species of concern in food safety.
Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus
True or False: Aspergillus can produce Ochratoxin A.
True
Which Fusarium species are noted for producing mycotoxins?
Fusarium verticillioides and Fusarium proliferatum
What are the two main mycotoxins produced by Fusarium species?
Zearalenone and Trichothecenes
Which genus is known to produce Patulin?
Penicillium
Besides Patulin, what other mycotoxin is produced by Penicillium spp.?
Ochratoxin A
What type of toxicity refers to liver damage caused by mycotoxins?
Hepatotoxic
What type of toxicity refers to kidney damage caused by mycotoxins?
Nephrotoxic
True or False: Mycotoxins can suppress the immune system.
True
What term describes a substance's ability to cause cancer, a known risk of some mycotoxins?
Carcinogenic
Which international standard-setting body provides guidelines for mycotoxin limits in the Philippines?
Codex Alimentarius
Which local agency in the Philippines sets the regulatory limits for food toxins?
FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
What are the three major mycotoxin risk factors in the Philippines?
Climate, Storage, and Substrate
In the laboratory, what technique is used for separation and quantitation of aflatoxins?
HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography)
What antibody-based laboratory assay is commonly used for rapid detection of aflatoxins?
ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
What culture medium is abbreviated as PDA in fungal isolation?
Potato Dextrose Agar
What culture medium is abbreviated as MEA in fungal isolation?
Malt Extract Agar
What selective media containing an antibiotic is used for mold isolation to prevent bacterial growth?
Rose Bengal Chloramphenicol Agar (RBCA)
What is the first step in isolating molds from food products?
Sample collection
What optional step helps eliminate surface contaminants when isolating molds from foods?
Surface sterilization
In the isolation of molds, what process follows plating and culture media inoculation?
Incubation
Why is subculturing performed after mold incubation?
To obtain a pure culture of the isolated mold
What is the first step in the laboratory procedure of ELISA for aflatoxins?
Sample Extraction
What step follows Sample Extraction in the ELISA process for aflatoxins?
Filtration and Clean-up
What is the final step in both ELISA and HPLC procedures for aflatoxins?
Measurement
What are the three main steps in the microscopic identification of fungi?
Slide preparation, Microscopic observation, and Identification of structure
Name four major foodborne viral pathogens.
Norovirus, Hepatitis A and E, Rotavirus, and Astrovirus
What virus is commonly known as the "winter vomiting bug"?
Norovirus
What is another name for Norovirus, named after its prototype strain?
Norwalk virus
Norovirus infection is typically self-limited and lasts less than ___ days.
3
What major organ system is primarily targeted by Hepatitis A and E?
Liver
What viral pathogen is commonly referred to as a cause of "stomach flu" primarily in infants and young children?
Rotavirus
What stomach flu virus shows a water-to-susceptible individual transmission pathway involving bivalve molluscs?
Astrovirus
What are the three primary routes of viral food contamination?
Fecal-oral route, Infected food handlers, and Water
True or False: Norovirus is highly unstable in the environment.
False (it is stable in the environment)
How can Hepatitis A and E viruses be inactivated in food?
Adequate cooking
For how long can Rotavirus survive in the environment?
Days and weeks
For how long can Astrovirus survive on surfaces?
Days or even weeks
What is the primary method of preventing viral gastroenteritis in food handler environments?
Hygiene (or Food Handler Protocols)
Why is "shellfish safety" a specific prevention protocol for foodborne viruses?
Shellfish (like bivalve molluscs) concentrate viruses from contaminated waters
In viral laboratory activities, what nucleic acid is extracted from food or water samples?
RNA
What molecular assay is demonstrated in laboratories to identify Norovirus?
RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction)
What is the first step in the RNA extraction workflow?
Sample lysis
What step follows sample lysis in the RNA extraction process?
RNA capture and purification
What is the final step of the RNA extraction process where pure RNA is recovered?
Elution
Which nematode parasite causes trichinosis?
Trichinella spiralis
What disease is caused by Trichinella spiralis?
Trichinosis (or Trichinellosis)
What is the primary source of Trichinella spiralis infection in humans?
Raw and undercooked meats
Name three host animals (habitats) for Trichinella spiralis.
Pigs, foxes, and wild boars
At what stage is a muscle biopsy performed to diagnose Trichinellosis?
Encystment stage
What blood test finding is characteristic of a parasitic helminth infection like Trichinellosis?
Eosinophilia
Trichinellosis infection causes increased levels of which muscle enzyme in the blood?
Creatine phosphokinase (CPK)
True or False: Adult and larval Trichinella spiralis can be found in feces during the diarrheal stage.
True
What cooking temperature is specified on Slide 29 to prevent Trichinella spiralis?
145°C (likely a slide typo for 145°F)
Under what freezing conditions can Trichinella spiralis be controlled in meat?
5°F for 30 days
Beside cooking and freezing, what physical process can prevent Trichinella in pork?
Irradiation
How is a confirmative diagnosis of taeniasis made in the laboratory?
Finding gravid proglottids or eggs in stool
Name three microscopic techniques used to find Taenia eggs in stool.
Direct fecal smear, Brine flotation technique, and Cellophane-tape technique
Why is visual identification of Taenia eggs under a microscope challenging?
It has poor sensitivity and is difficult to differentiate species (e.g., T. solium from T. saginata)
What antigen detection test offers 95% sensitivity and 99% specificity for Taenia?
Coproantigen detection ELISA
How is the brain-type of cysticercosis diagnosed?
X-ray, CT scan, or MRI
What examination is specifically used to diagnose the ocular form of cysticercosis?
Ophthalmoscope examination
Name three clinical symptoms of taeniasis in humans.
Nervousness, Anorexia (weight loss), and Abdominal pain (digestive disturbances)
What is the common name for Diphyllobothrium latum?
Broad fish tapeworm
What infection is caused by Diphyllobothrium latum?
Diphyllobothriasis
Name three signs and symptoms of diphyllobothriasis.
Gastrointestinal symptoms, Fatigue, and Passage of proglottids
What are the two primary physical control methods for preventing Diphyllobothrium latum in fish?
Proper cooking and Freezing
What are the two key protozoan parasites covered in food microbiology?
Toxoplasma gondii and Giardia lamblia
What disease is caused by Toxoplasma gondii?
Toxoplasmosis
What antibodies are tested for in a rapid diagnostic test cassette for Toxo?
IgG and IgM
What are the three diagnostic methods for Toxoplasma gondii in the laboratory?
Serologic testing, Direct demonstration of parasite, and Molecular testing
What severe complications are associated with severe toxoplasmosis?
Neurologic and Ocular damages
What is the recommended minimum cooking temperature for whole cuts of meat to prevent Toxoplasma gondii?
145°F (63°C)
What is the recommended minimum cooking temperature for ground meat (excluding poultry) to prevent Toxoplasma gondii?
160°F (71°C)
What is the recommended minimum cooking temperature for poultry to prevent Toxoplasma gondii?
165°F (74°C)
At what temperature should meat be frozen for several days to destroy Toxoplasma gondii?
Sub-zero (0°F) temperatures
What disease is caused by Giardia lamblia?
Giardiasis
What diagnostic test utilizes a gelatin capsule with a nylon string to retrieve duodenal contents for diagnosing Giardia?
Enterotest
What are the three main laboratory diagnostic methods for Giardia lamblia?
Direct fecal smear, Enterotest, and Immunoassays
What novel food preservation technique is abbreviated as HPP?
High Pressure Processing
High Pressure Processing (HPP) inactivates microorganisms using pressures up to ___ MPa.
600
True or False: High Pressure Processing (HPP) severely degrades the nutritional and sensory properties of food.
False (it retains sensory and nutritional properties)
Name two types of food commonly treated with High Pressure Processing (HPP).
Fruit juices, RTE meats, and seafood
What food preservation method uses short bursts of high voltage to disrupt microbial membranes?
Pulsed Electric Fields (PEF)
Pulsed Electric Fields (PEF) is most suitable for what type of foods?
Liquid foods (e.g., juices, milk)
What specific range of ultraviolet light is used in food preservation to damage microbial DNA?
UV-C
What is a major limitation of UV-C light preservation?
It is limited to surface decontamination and transparent liquids
What non-thermal ionized gas treatment is effective against bacteria and bacterial spores?
Cold Plasma Technology
In what area of food science is Cold Plasma Technology emerging as a major application?
Packaging applications
What are the four classes of synthetic chemical preservatives listed in the slides?
Sodium Benzoate, Nitrates, Sorbates, and Sulfites
Name two examples of Sorbate preservatives.
Potassium Sorbate and Sorbic Acid
Name two examples of Nitrate preservatives.
Sodium Nitrite and Potassium Nitrite
Name three examples of Sulfite preservatives.
Sulfur Dioxide, Sodium Sulfite, and Potassium Metabisulfite
Name three plant-derived natural antimicrobials.
Oregano Oil, Cinnamon Oil, and Garlic Extract
Name two animal-derived natural antimicrobials.
Lysozyme and Lactoferrin
What are bacteriocins?
Microbial-derived antimicrobials (or peptides)
Name two bacteriocins commonly used as food antimicrobials.
Nisin and Natamycin (Pimaricin)
What is another name for the bacteriocin Natamycin?
Pimaricin