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Last updated 1:18 PM on 6/18/26
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115 Terms

1
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What are the three fungal genera primarily associated with mycotoxins in food safety?

Aspergillus, Fusarium, and Penicillium

2
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Which fungal genus produces Aflatoxins?

Aspergillus

3
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Name two Aspergillus species of concern in food safety.

Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus

4
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True or False: Aspergillus can produce Ochratoxin A.

True

5
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Which Fusarium species are noted for producing mycotoxins?

Fusarium verticillioides and Fusarium proliferatum

6
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What are the two main mycotoxins produced by Fusarium species?

Zearalenone and Trichothecenes

7
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Which genus is known to produce Patulin?

Penicillium

8
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Besides Patulin, what other mycotoxin is produced by Penicillium spp.?

Ochratoxin A

9
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What type of toxicity refers to liver damage caused by mycotoxins?

Hepatotoxic

10
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What type of toxicity refers to kidney damage caused by mycotoxins?

Nephrotoxic

11
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True or False: Mycotoxins can suppress the immune system.

True

12
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What term describes a substance's ability to cause cancer, a known risk of some mycotoxins?

Carcinogenic

13
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Which international standard-setting body provides guidelines for mycotoxin limits in the Philippines?

Codex Alimentarius

14
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Which local agency in the Philippines sets the regulatory limits for food toxins?

FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

15
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What are the three major mycotoxin risk factors in the Philippines?

Climate, Storage, and Substrate

16
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In the laboratory, what technique is used for separation and quantitation of aflatoxins?

HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography)

17
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What antibody-based laboratory assay is commonly used for rapid detection of aflatoxins?

ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)

18
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What culture medium is abbreviated as PDA in fungal isolation?

Potato Dextrose Agar

19
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What culture medium is abbreviated as MEA in fungal isolation?

Malt Extract Agar

20
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What selective media containing an antibiotic is used for mold isolation to prevent bacterial growth?

Rose Bengal Chloramphenicol Agar (RBCA)

21
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What is the first step in isolating molds from food products?

Sample collection

22
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What optional step helps eliminate surface contaminants when isolating molds from foods?

Surface sterilization

23
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In the isolation of molds, what process follows plating and culture media inoculation?

Incubation

24
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Why is subculturing performed after mold incubation?

To obtain a pure culture of the isolated mold

25
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What is the first step in the laboratory procedure of ELISA for aflatoxins?

Sample Extraction

26
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What step follows Sample Extraction in the ELISA process for aflatoxins?

Filtration and Clean-up

27
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What is the final step in both ELISA and HPLC procedures for aflatoxins?

Measurement

28
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What are the three main steps in the microscopic identification of fungi?

Slide preparation, Microscopic observation, and Identification of structure

29
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Name four major foodborne viral pathogens.

Norovirus, Hepatitis A and E, Rotavirus, and Astrovirus

30
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What virus is commonly known as the "winter vomiting bug"?

Norovirus

31
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What is another name for Norovirus, named after its prototype strain?

Norwalk virus

32
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Norovirus infection is typically self-limited and lasts less than ___ days.

3

33
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What major organ system is primarily targeted by Hepatitis A and E?

Liver

34
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What viral pathogen is commonly referred to as a cause of "stomach flu" primarily in infants and young children?

Rotavirus

35
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What stomach flu virus shows a water-to-susceptible individual transmission pathway involving bivalve molluscs?

Astrovirus

36
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What are the three primary routes of viral food contamination?

Fecal-oral route, Infected food handlers, and Water

37
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True or False: Norovirus is highly unstable in the environment.

False (it is stable in the environment)

38
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How can Hepatitis A and E viruses be inactivated in food?

Adequate cooking

39
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For how long can Rotavirus survive in the environment?

Days and weeks

40
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For how long can Astrovirus survive on surfaces?

Days or even weeks

41
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What is the primary method of preventing viral gastroenteritis in food handler environments?

Hygiene (or Food Handler Protocols)

42
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Why is "shellfish safety" a specific prevention protocol for foodborne viruses?

Shellfish (like bivalve molluscs) concentrate viruses from contaminated waters

43
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In viral laboratory activities, what nucleic acid is extracted from food or water samples?

RNA

44
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What molecular assay is demonstrated in laboratories to identify Norovirus?

RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction)

45
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What is the first step in the RNA extraction workflow?

Sample lysis

46
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What step follows sample lysis in the RNA extraction process?

RNA capture and purification

47
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What is the final step of the RNA extraction process where pure RNA is recovered?

Elution

48
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Which nematode parasite causes trichinosis?

Trichinella spiralis

49
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What disease is caused by Trichinella spiralis?

Trichinosis (or Trichinellosis)

50
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What is the primary source of Trichinella spiralis infection in humans?

Raw and undercooked meats

51
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Name three host animals (habitats) for Trichinella spiralis.

Pigs, foxes, and wild boars

52
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At what stage is a muscle biopsy performed to diagnose Trichinellosis?

Encystment stage

53
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What blood test finding is characteristic of a parasitic helminth infection like Trichinellosis?

Eosinophilia

54
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Trichinellosis infection causes increased levels of which muscle enzyme in the blood?

Creatine phosphokinase (CPK)

55
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True or False: Adult and larval Trichinella spiralis can be found in feces during the diarrheal stage.

True

56
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What cooking temperature is specified on Slide 29 to prevent Trichinella spiralis?

145°C (likely a slide typo for 145°F)

57
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Under what freezing conditions can Trichinella spiralis be controlled in meat?

5°F for 30 days

58
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Beside cooking and freezing, what physical process can prevent Trichinella in pork?

Irradiation

59
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How is a confirmative diagnosis of taeniasis made in the laboratory?

Finding gravid proglottids or eggs in stool

60
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Name three microscopic techniques used to find Taenia eggs in stool.

Direct fecal smear, Brine flotation technique, and Cellophane-tape technique

61
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Why is visual identification of Taenia eggs under a microscope challenging?

It has poor sensitivity and is difficult to differentiate species (e.g., T. solium from T. saginata)

62
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What antigen detection test offers 95% sensitivity and 99% specificity for Taenia?

Coproantigen detection ELISA

63
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How is the brain-type of cysticercosis diagnosed?

X-ray, CT scan, or MRI

64
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What examination is specifically used to diagnose the ocular form of cysticercosis?

Ophthalmoscope examination

65
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Name three clinical symptoms of taeniasis in humans.

Nervousness, Anorexia (weight loss), and Abdominal pain (digestive disturbances)

66
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What is the common name for Diphyllobothrium latum?

Broad fish tapeworm

67
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What infection is caused by Diphyllobothrium latum?

Diphyllobothriasis

68
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Name three signs and symptoms of diphyllobothriasis.

Gastrointestinal symptoms, Fatigue, and Passage of proglottids

69
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What are the two primary physical control methods for preventing Diphyllobothrium latum in fish?

Proper cooking and Freezing

70
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What are the two key protozoan parasites covered in food microbiology?

Toxoplasma gondii and Giardia lamblia

71
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What disease is caused by Toxoplasma gondii?

Toxoplasmosis

72
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What antibodies are tested for in a rapid diagnostic test cassette for Toxo?

IgG and IgM

73
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What are the three diagnostic methods for Toxoplasma gondii in the laboratory?

Serologic testing, Direct demonstration of parasite, and Molecular testing

74
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What severe complications are associated with severe toxoplasmosis?

Neurologic and Ocular damages

75
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What is the recommended minimum cooking temperature for whole cuts of meat to prevent Toxoplasma gondii?

145°F (63°C)

76
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What is the recommended minimum cooking temperature for ground meat (excluding poultry) to prevent Toxoplasma gondii?

160°F (71°C)

77
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What is the recommended minimum cooking temperature for poultry to prevent Toxoplasma gondii?

165°F (74°C)

78
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At what temperature should meat be frozen for several days to destroy Toxoplasma gondii?

Sub-zero (0°F) temperatures

79
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What disease is caused by Giardia lamblia?

Giardiasis

80
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What diagnostic test utilizes a gelatin capsule with a nylon string to retrieve duodenal contents for diagnosing Giardia?

Enterotest

81
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What are the three main laboratory diagnostic methods for Giardia lamblia?

Direct fecal smear, Enterotest, and Immunoassays

82
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What novel food preservation technique is abbreviated as HPP?

High Pressure Processing

83
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High Pressure Processing (HPP) inactivates microorganisms using pressures up to ___ MPa.

600

84
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True or False: High Pressure Processing (HPP) severely degrades the nutritional and sensory properties of food.

False (it retains sensory and nutritional properties)

85
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Name two types of food commonly treated with High Pressure Processing (HPP).

Fruit juices, RTE meats, and seafood

86
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What food preservation method uses short bursts of high voltage to disrupt microbial membranes?

Pulsed Electric Fields (PEF)

87
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Pulsed Electric Fields (PEF) is most suitable for what type of foods?

Liquid foods (e.g., juices, milk)

88
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What specific range of ultraviolet light is used in food preservation to damage microbial DNA?

UV-C

89
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What is a major limitation of UV-C light preservation?

It is limited to surface decontamination and transparent liquids

90
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What non-thermal ionized gas treatment is effective against bacteria and bacterial spores?

Cold Plasma Technology

91
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In what area of food science is Cold Plasma Technology emerging as a major application?

Packaging applications

92
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What are the four classes of synthetic chemical preservatives listed in the slides?

Sodium Benzoate, Nitrates, Sorbates, and Sulfites

93
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Name two examples of Sorbate preservatives.

Potassium Sorbate and Sorbic Acid

94
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Name two examples of Nitrate preservatives.

Sodium Nitrite and Potassium Nitrite

95
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Name three examples of Sulfite preservatives.

Sulfur Dioxide, Sodium Sulfite, and Potassium Metabisulfite

96
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Name three plant-derived natural antimicrobials.

Oregano Oil, Cinnamon Oil, and Garlic Extract

97
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Name two animal-derived natural antimicrobials.

Lysozyme and Lactoferrin

98
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What are bacteriocins?

Microbial-derived antimicrobials (or peptides)

99
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Name two bacteriocins commonly used as food antimicrobials.

Nisin and Natamycin (Pimaricin)

100
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What is another name for the bacteriocin Natamycin?

Pimaricin